Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Then... by "...which conjugate in qatal hiphil without the medial yod ..."
you don't intend  to refer to those verbs that have a real, an existing
conjugation in both the qatal and the hiphil conjugations?

When you write "qatal hiphil" are you simply speaking of the "past hiphil"
(as I call it)?

To me, Karl, "qatal" rather refers to a conjugation type, the one, so to
say, which is the basic one: "amarty", I said; "amarta", you (male) said;
"amar", he said, "amarnu", we said....


Pere Porta

2011/4/21 K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>

> Pere:
>
>  On Wed, Apr 20, 2011 at 8:54 PM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Karl,
>>
>> in the last part of your post you write:
>>
>> "Do you know of any other examples of a verb listed in dictionaries with a
>> consonant, waw, tau, which conjugate in qatal hiphil without the medial yod
>> and without a second tau where normal conjugation calls for one? Absent
>> being able to show a pattern from ......"
>>
>> Please what does "qatal hiphil" mean?
>> Maybe by "qatal" you mean what I call "past"?
>>
>
> Yes.
>
> But why do you call it “past”?  The normal way of referencing that
> conjugation is to call it “qatal” because it does not refer to a tense.
> Decades ago I was taught not to call it “past” because it doesn’t refer to
> the past.
>
>>
>> Regards from
>>
>> Pere Porta
>>
>> Karl W. Randolph.
>
>


-- 
Pere Porta