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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
- To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?
- Date: Sat, 16 Apr 2011 06:10:43 +0200
We have in Nm 17:6 the verbal form HAMIT.EM, you killed.
If we were to write this word in today Israeli script (the pointless one,
hasar haniqud), must we include a YUD between M and T?
I mean: should the written word take the form of the last word in 1Sa 2:25
(of course, without points and without the prefixed lamed)?
Kind regards from
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
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--
Pere Porta
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
Pere Porta, 04/16/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
K Randolph, 04/16/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
Pere Porta, 04/18/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?, Isaac Fried, 04/18/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?, K Randolph, 04/18/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
K Randolph, 04/19/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
Pere Porta, 04/20/2011
-
Message not available
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
Pere Porta, 04/20/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?, K Randolph, 04/21/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?, Pere Porta, 04/21/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?, K Randolph, 04/21/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
Pere Porta, 04/20/2011
-
Message not available
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
Pere Porta, 04/20/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
Pere Porta, 04/18/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?,
K Randolph, 04/16/2011
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