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  • From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Someone knows?
  • Date: Sat, 16 Apr 2011 06:10:43 +0200

We have in Nm 17:6 the verbal form HAMIT.EM, you killed.

If we were to write this word in today Israeli script (the pointless one,
hasar haniqud), must we include a YUD between M and T?

I mean: should the written word take the form of the last word in 1Sa 2:25
(of course, without points and without the prefixed lamed)?

Kind regards from

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)


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--
Pere Porta




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