Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>]

I would say HA-KTIYB XASAR HA-NIYQUD V-XASAR HADIGU$, since the DIYGU 
$ is, in my opinion, independent of the NIYKUD.
I think that the custom today is to routinely insert a yod after an  
unmarked xireq (leading to such disagreeable "official" spellings as  
אימא 'mother'), albeit with some exceptions. See here for the  
"rules":

http://he.wikipedia.org/wiki/%D7%9B%D7%AA%D7%99%D7%91_%D7%97%D7%A1%D7% 
A8_%D7%A0%D7%99%D7%A7%D7%95%D7%93
In fact, here:

http://www.mechon-mamre.org/i/t/k/k0417.htm

the unpunctuated word HAMITEM of Nu. 17:6 is written with a yod,  
thus: המיתם

In Nu. 17:6 HAMITEM has a (in my opinion, pre-NIYQUD) dagesh in the  
letter T to recall the xireq under the letter M, suggesting, by the  
antiquity of the dagesh, that the word was "always" lacking a yod.
If I were younger I would start a campaign for the restoration of the  
dgeshim system in the KTIYB XASAR HA-NIYQUD, as it was in ancient  
times, before the invention of the NIYQUD, thus: אמּא .

In 1Sa 2:25 LAHAMIYTAM lacks a dagesh in the T since the word is  
written in full with a yod after the xireq. The yod hints to the  
xireq, making a further dagesh hinter unnecessary, suggesting, by the  
antiquity of the dagesh, that the word was "always" written with a yod.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Apr 16, 2011, at 12:10 AM, Pere Porta wrote:

>  We have in Nm 17:6 the verbal form HAMIT.EM, you killed.
>
> If we were to write this word in today Israeli script (the  
> pointless one,
> hasar haniqud), must we include a YUD between M and T?
>
> I mean: should the written word take the form of the last word in  
> 1Sa 2:25
> (of course, without points and without the prefixed lamed)?
>
> Kind regards from
>
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
>
>
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>
>
> --
> Pere Porta
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