Biblical Hebrew Forum

["B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>]

Hi Kelton,

Re Gen 2:25, they came into being naked.  That means from the start, 
from their being created, they were naked.  The verse is not just saying 
that they were naked (read verbless clause, sheneyhem `arumiym).  It is 
stating that they came about or came into being naked (read wayyiqtol 
clause, vayyihyu sheneyhem `arumiym).

Re 2Chr 20:25, we can read it "three days transpired (vayyihyu) 
plundering the spoil..." or "Those plundering the spoil did their thing 
(vayyihyu) three days..."  I think the word order recommends the former.

Shalom,
Bryan

kgraham0938 AT comcast.net wrote:
> Hey thanks for the reply, it has always been my understanding that hayah 
> did correspond to the 'b verb' in english.  Like for instance Waltke & 
> O'Conner says on pg 72.
>  
> In a verbless (or nominal) clause there is no verbal marker of 
> predication.  Hebrwe, like many other languages, including Latin and 
> Classical Greek, may predicate an adjective or noun directly, without a 
> copula (i.e some form of hayah, which corresponds to English 'to be'). 
>  
> So that is how I have always seen it, not to be say this is a trump card 
> or anything but just my understanding of it and where it came from.  And 
> with regards to Gen 2:25 when you said "they came into a state of being 
> naked."  Were'nt they already naked?   It does not seems to me that they 
> were becoming nake but already naked.  Another example I'd like to get 
> your opinion on is 2 Chr 20:25.
>  
> vayih:yw yamiym $:lo$h boz:ziym , it looks to me that the verb is 
> functioning more like a past progressive 'were plundering.'  What are 
> your thoughts?
>  
> --
> Kelton Graham
> KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net
>  

--
B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13026
(W): 315.437.6744