Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

Yigal wrote:
While your translation is possible, the following "and he spoke to me" tends

to confirm the usual "and he called to me" or something like it. When in 
doubt (and in any case!), look at the context.

SM: thanks very much Yigal. To me, I don't see any contextual support for
"and he called to me" from the following "and he spoke to me". The angel
spoke to Zechariah many times. Why only here would he call to Zechariah 1st,
and record it in the Bible? Zechariah was already listening anyway. What
meaning would it add?
-Steve Miller
Detroit