Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Steve,

> HH: Some hiphils are strange. There are
> internally causative hiphils. This is evidently a
> strange one. Here is the definition for it in HAL:
>
>         hif: impf. wayaz{e†q, yaz{-îqu®; impv.
> haz{eq-; inf. haz{-îq: -1. to utter a plaintive
> cry Jb 35:9; -2. to summon (the militia) Ju
> 4:10-13; 2S 20:4f; -3. to make a proclamation Jon
> 3:7; -4. with acc. to call out to someone Zech
> 6:8 cj. 10:9 (w§}az{-îqe†m, alt. as 2). ¯
>         Der. cj. *za{aq, z§{a†qa†h.
>
> HH: "To cause me to hear a call for help" might be "to cry out to me."
>
> SM: Thanks Harold. In HAL: What does the cj. 10:9 mean after Zech 6:8?

HH: It means that conjecturally this might be the right reading at Zech 10:9.

>  HAL gives a different meaning for almost every 
> instance. I would give Zech 6:8 the same meaning 
> as Job 35:9 "By reason of the multitude of 
> oppressions they make the oppressed to cry" 
> (AKJV)

HCSB Job 35:9 "People cry out because of severe 
oppression; they shout for help from the arm of 
the mighty."
NIV Job 35:9  "Men cry out under a load of 
oppression; they plead for relief from the arm of 
the powerful.

HH: You are not consistent with the usage of the 
verb elsehwhere. I have two other lexicons, which 
also agree with HALOT, BDB and DCH (Dictionary of 
Classical Hebrew)..

> "He caused me to hear a cry."
>
> SM: I don't know enough to say that it is not 
> possible. But it is not as straightforward as 
> "caused me to cry".

HH: Yes, but that's apparently not what the verb 
means. If a verb occurs in numerous places, and 
elsewhere it is a simple verb of speech, despite 
the Hiphil form, then that's what is probable 
here.

> HH: This could be equivalent to "He summoned" 
> me, as Kelton said, or "He implored me," 
> "alerted me," "signaled me." Whether verbs take 
> prepositions is often a feature of a specific 
> language. Verbal ideas that in one language take 
> a preposition might not in another language. So 
> there could be in Hebrew ideas like "he yelled 
> me," "he screamed me," or something like that 
> (caused me to hear a yell, scream, etc.).
>
> SM: I have never seen "he yelled me" etc in the 
> Hebrew. If you know of a case please show me.

HH: No, I'm just saying that the use of 
prepositions varies from language to language. 
Verbs that take prepositions in one language do 
not necessarily do so in another for a similar 
word.

> By the way, I notice that in your replies, the 
> Hebrew Unicode is messed up. Are you seeing the 
> Hebrew?

HH: No, I have an IMAC with Internet Explorer, 
and it doesn't handle Unicode the last time I 
checked.

                                        Yours,
                                        Harold Holmyard