Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Awohili AT aol.com]

Which "grammatical rule" is that, Steve?  In the NWT Reference Bible's  
appendix 1D, it is stated that use of the Tetragram in their NT is determined 
by  
(a) "where the inspired Christian writers have quoted verses, passages, or  
expressions from the Hebrew Scriptures [and] whether the divine name appears  
there," and (b) whether there is "agreement from the Hebrew [New Testament  
translations] to confirm our rendering."  As for 1 Corinthians 7:17, the  
appendix 
states that "context and related texts strongly support rendering the  divine 
name [there]."  No appeal is made to any "grammatical rule."
 
As for 1 Corinthians 12:3 -- I presume you mean in a Hebrew version of the  
New Testament -- "haAdohn" (the Lord) is not used in the older Delitzsch 
Hebrew 
 version, merely "adohn (Lord)."  The UBS Hebrew version does use "haAdohn,"  
but that is their judgment call, since the Greek text of 1  Corinthians 12:3 
does not use the definite article  here (i.e., not hO KURIOS, "the Lord"), 
but 
merely has KURIOS ("Lord")..  
 
Therefore, the older Delitzsch Hebrew translation is closer to the Greek  
text, and there was no textual reason, in either Greek or putative Hebrew, to 
 
render 1 Corinthians 12:3 to read "Jesus is Jehovah."
 
Solomon Landers
 
In a message dated 11/20/2005 2:16:39 P.M. Pacific Standard Time,  
schmuel AT nyc.rr.com writes:

According to  their own grammatical rule, haAdohn [] is translated as Jehovah 
at 1  Corinthians 4:19 and 1 Corinthians 7:17. .....the New World Bible 
Translation  Committee did not follow their own rule at 1 Corinthians 11:23, 
Philippians  2:11, or Luke 24:34. 

1 Corinthians 12:3 
Wherefore I give you to  understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of 
God calleth Jesus accursed:  and that no man can say that Jesus is Jehovah, 
but 
by the Holy  Ghost.