Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Steve,

> Yigal wrote:
> While your translation is possible, the following "and he spoke to me" tends
>
> to confirm the usual "and he called to me" or something like it. When in
> doubt (and in any case!), look at the context.
>
> SM: thanks very much Yigal. To me, I don't see any contextual support for
> "and he called to me" from the following "and he spoke to me". The angel
> spoke to Zechariah many times. Why only here would he call to Zechariah 1st,
> and record it in the Bible? Zechariah was already listening anyway. What
> meaning would it add?

HH: One thought that occurs to me is a possible indication of the 
sound of the horses that would require shouting. Or the importance of 
the message could receive emphasis. The verse shows the angel 
speaking as God. Since the lexicon gives the verbal meanings 
suggested, it is not a stretch to allow them.

                                        Yours,
                                        Harold Holmyard