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  • From: "moon-ryul jung" <moon AT sogang.ac.kr>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: the role of the law in salvation-history
  • Date: Mon, 1 Oct 2001 13:57:16 -0400


> Good discussion,
> Nice to hear from you again Moon.
>

Mark,
nice to get you involved again. This week is our thanksgiving holidays,
and I have some time to read the previous posts.

> I would just like to bring attention to a situational factor that should
> effect how anyone goes about exegeting this curse language in Galatians. The
> issue being addressed to these non-Jewish addressees is not about observing
> the Law, but about becoming proselytes, ie., people of the Law. Note the
> ironic ridicule of 5:3 is aimed at the addressees failure to be thinking
> about the result of that choice, observance of the whole Law. So the issue
> to be determined in the argument of the letter is not about the
> Law-observance of Israelites; that is the furthest thing from the mind of
> the addressees. It must make sense of what Paul is trying to dissuade them
> from: becoming Israelites.

Yes, exactly. I have been trying to make sense of what Paul says in a way
that I do not have to say negative things about the Law-observance of
Israelites.
At least, I would like to find a way to read Paul in this direction, and
see
if it is feasible and not forced. I am not satisfied at any of my attempts
and
attempts of others. But thanks again for setting up a clear guideline.

In Rom 3:28-30, Paul disuades Gentile believers from trying to
be righteoused by works of the law, i.e. practicing the deeds of the law,
which are considered to be identity markers of being Jews. He does that
by saying that that attempt makes God the God of Jews only, which
contradicts the very foundation of Israel's religion. Here Paul does not
employ any negative rhetoric to make his point.

But in Galatians he uses negative rhetoric to make the same point. Is
there
any way to make sense of what Paul says without criticising the
Law-observance
of Israelites itself? George Howard's attempt is one of those ways, though
I am not fully convinced. About Gal 3:10, 13, he says:
(I am quoting him from your book " the Mystery of Romans". You quote him
to agree with him.)

They[Jews] were redeemed from the suppressing force of the law which
separated Jew from Gentile and held back the universal unity which
was destined to come. In our judgement the context points to this sense,
and none other, that all men, both Jews and Gentiles, were redeemed from
the law. In Christ's redemptive act, the law lost its divisive power
and uncircumcised Gentiles were ushered into God's kingdom on equal
terms with the Jews. This was salvation for Paul, for in that moment
Yahweh became of the God of all men, and all men became his people".

I like this attempt very much. But taking the "curse" language this way
seem forced. The "curse" language of Gal 3:10 comes from Deut 27, where
the curse is the one pronounced to those who fail to obey the law. Hence
the "curse of the law" in Gal 3:13 should be taken to mean
the curse pronounced to those who fail to obey the law. To take it to be
the discrimination caused by the law seems quite out of context.

James Dunn suggests that those who want to be of "works of the law" are
under
curse because they actually do not abide in the law. In fact, this is
the plain meaning of 3:10. To be under curse, one should not abide in the
law according to 3:10b (Deut 27:26). Dunn seems to say that doing
the "works of the law" contradicts fulfilling the true intention of
the law, which Deut 27:26 requires. It inevitably leads to criticizing
the Law-observance of Israelites. This is not what I want at least for
now.

Though still unsatisfactory, in my post I took the "curse of the law"
to be the historical curse that Israel has experienced and is still
experiencing, and that was predicted to fall upon Israel (cf. Deut
4:23-26).
This historical curse of Israel is what those who want to be of works
of the law should consider. Why would they want to identify with Israel
who was experiencing the curse of the law? Israel also needed to be
redeemed from this curse (Gal 3:13). Saying that Israel eas
experiencing the curse of the Law is not the same as criticizing the
Law-observance of Isrelites. In sum, Paul tried to dissuade the Gentile
believers from wanting to be of works of the law, by pointing out that
Israel characterized by the works of the law was experiencing the
curse of the law, from which Christ had to redeem "us" [the Jews].
[ In 5:3, Paul employs another kind of dissuation,
the fact that they would have perform all the law. ]

Is this attempt satisfying your guideline for taking the curse language?

Moon
Moon R. Jung
Associate Professor
Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea








> Regards,
> Mark
> --
> Mark D. Nanos, Ph.D.
> 313 NE Landings Dr.
> Lee's Summit, MO 64064
> USA
> nanosmd AT home.com




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