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  • From: "Billy LeJeune" <billyl AT wcs.edu>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: the role of the law in salvation-history
  • Date: Tue, 2 Oct 2001 05:44:41 -0500

Dear Moon,

I know you were not speaking to me when you said "What do you think?'
but please allow me to comment; I'll be brief.

You wrote:
Because, for Israel there is a blessing and a curse in relation to their
law [as declared by the prophets and as realized in history several
times and even now].

Billy:
The way I understand covenant, one would recieve either the blessing for
obedience or the curse for disobedience. What blessing is left to be had
under Moses? Can it be that God still holds out the land to Present Day
Israel when he has promised the world to Abraham?

Moon wrote:
There is no point in that backward move.

Billy:
It's not going backward far enough! It's that in going backward one
doesn't stop at Moses; one keeps going back to the promise made to
Abraham. The gentiles come in because of promises to Abraham which, of
course, pre-dates Moses.


Moon:
In fact, Christ redeemed us [Gentiles] from the curse of the law (Gal
3:13) [which is the fate of Israel as the Law-people], that to the
nations might come the blessing of Abraham in Christ Jesus, that we
[Gentiles] might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith[Gal
3:14ab].

Billy:
Do you mean gentiles universal or prosylites? I don't see how gentiles
universal could be considered to be under the curse of the law. Gentiles
are under a curse to be sure, but the law was part of a specific
covenant through Moses and to his people. I don't see how it can mean
prosylites either since here they are in danger of the Mosaic curse
after Christ has already redeemed them.

Moon wrote:
[The reasons that I take "us" to refer to the Gentiles are twofold.
(1) "we" refer to Jews only 2:15, where we have explicit indicators
ie. "we ourselves, who are Jews by birth and not Gentile
sinners".
Unless otherwise stated, therefore, it is natural to think that
Paul
uses "we" to refer to the Gentile believers in the Galatian
church.
Paul identifies him with them as the leader of the congregation.

Billy:
I don't see why the explicit indicators would have to follow each use of
"we." I would say the 2:15 defines "we" for the rest of the letter.

Moon:
(2) "you" and "we" are used interchangeably throughout the letter.
E.g. 4:5-6. "so that we might receive the sonship. Because you are
sons,
God sent the Spirit of his son into our hearts"
"You" and "we" are interchanged even in a single sentence
in 4:6.

Billy:
I see 4:5-6 as a transition from "we" Jews by birth to "you" gentiles by
birth. But I guess that would go without saying. :-)


Moon:
This solution does not say anything negative about the law-observance of

Israelites, except for the non-controversial fact that there is a
blessing
and a curse in relation to the law.

Billy:
Again, how is there a remaining blessing in relation to the law?

Repsectfully,
Billy LeJeune
Reader of Wright

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