Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Interesting arguments, although HH has already questioned them. There is a
talmudic tradition, quoted by such medieval commentators as Rashi, that
Shiphrah and Puah were actually Jochebed and Miriam. Also, some of these
commentators were aware that there could not have been only two midwives for
all the Hebrews, and conclude that these two must have been in charge of
many other midwives.

The real question, of course, is not the midwive' ethnicity, but the
author's purpose in pointing out their resistance to Pharaoh and the reward
they received from God. Assuming that they were Hebrews, the story might be
intended to show that God had not abandoned the Hebrews, but still protected
those Hebrews who showed themselves worthy of protection. If they were
Egyptians, it might be intended to show that there were some decent
Egyptians. In any case, the fact that the only worthy Hebrews or decent
Egyptians were women is, I'm sure, significant.

Yigal

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
To: "'b-hebrew'" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, November 04, 2005 6:03 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] midwives


> >And what would be the reason for the Hebrew women to use non-Hebrew
> > midwives?
>
> The same reason that in the U.S. most gardeners and domestic help in 
> Jewish
> neighborhoods are not Jewish, as well as most synagogue janitors. The
> Hebrews (up until verse 9) were too affluent to take such low paying or 
> low
> esteemed jobs.
>
> Then when the Hebrews were afflicted and made slaves, they did not get the
> chance to learn such a valuable trade.
>
> I believe the midwives were gentiles because:
> 1) Pharoah expected them to obey his command to kill the Hebrew baby boys
> (v15).
> 2) v18 When Pharoah finds out that the Hebrew baby boys have not been
> killed, he asks the midwives, "Why have ye done this thing, and have saved
> the men children alive?" It seems he doesn't understand why they would not
> have done this expedient thing. If the midwives were themselves Hebrews,
> wouldn't the answer be obvious? Would Pharoah have phrased the question in
> this way?
> 3) v19 And the midwives said unto Pharaoh, Because the Hebrew women are 
> not
> as the Egyptian women; for they are lively, and are delivered ere the
> midwives come in unto them.
> If the midwives were Hebrews, could they have gotten away with saying that
> the Hebrew women are more lively than the Egyptian women?
> Would Pharoah be so dumb as to believe them?
>
> -Steve Miller
> Detroit
>
>
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