Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

>And what would be the reason for the Hebrew women to use non-Hebrew
>midwives?

The same reason that in the U.S. most gardeners and domestic help in Jewish
neighborhoods are not Jewish, as well as most synagogue janitors. The
Hebrews (up until verse 9) were too affluent to take such low paying or low
esteemed jobs. 

Then when the Hebrews were afflicted and made slaves, they did not get the
chance to learn such a valuable trade.

I believe the midwives were gentiles because:
1) Pharoah expected them to obey his command to kill the Hebrew baby boys
(v15).
2) v18 When Pharoah finds out that the Hebrew baby boys have not been
killed, he asks the midwives, "Why have ye done this thing, and have saved
the men children alive?" It seems he doesn't understand why they would not
have done this expedient thing. If the midwives were themselves Hebrews,
wouldn't the answer be obvious? Would Pharoah have phrased the question in
this way?
3) v19 And the midwives said unto Pharaoh, Because the Hebrew women are not
as the Egyptian women; for they are lively, and are delivered ere the
midwives come in unto them.
If the midwives were Hebrews, could they have gotten away with saying that
the Hebrew women are more lively than the Egyptian women?
Would Pharoah be so dumb as to believe them?

-Steve Miller
Detroit