Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 22/09/2003 23:43, CS Bartholomew wrote:

> On 9/22/03 8:06 AM, "Pastor Mark Eddy" <markeddy AT adams.net> wrote:
>
>  
>
> > What is the subject of the verbs AMaR and YHaWeH (yod-chet-waw-heh) in Psalm
> > 19:3? Is one YOM telling something to another YOM, and one LaYLaH revealing
> > something to another (as in NASB)? Or is HaRaQiYa' of verse 2 the subject of
> > the verbs in verse 3, with the time references being adverbial (as the NIV
> > seems to read it)? And how do we know? All the nouns are masculine singular,
> > so they agree with the masculine singular verbs.
> >    
>
> Returning to Pastor Eddy's question:
>
> Take a look at mywM lywM in the following:
>
> Psa. 96:2 #yrw lyhwh brkw #mw b#rw mywM lywM y#w(tw
>
> Esth. 3:7 bxd# hr)#wN hw) xd# nysN b#nt #tyM (#rh lmlK )x#wrw# hpyl pwr hw)
> hgwrl lpny hmN mywM lywM wmxd# lxd# #nyM (#r hw) xd# )dr s
>
> Looks like mywM lywM is adverbial does it not?
> Now could ywM lywM in Psa. 19:3 be another way of encoding mywM lywM ?
>
> Psa. 19:3 ywM lywM yby( )mr wlylh llylh yxwh d(t
>
> I suspect that it is just that, but I am just a Hellenist so my opinion
> doesn't have any weight.
>
>
> greetings,
> Clay Bartholomew 
>
>
>
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>  
YOWM is certainly regularly used adverbially without any preposition. 
There are a lot of examples in BDB sense 7, pp.399-400. See especially 
sense 7e (1) (abridged here):

YOWM YOWM /day by day/ Gn 39:10 Ex 16:5 Pr 8:30,34 Ps 61:9 68:20
YOWM B.:YOWM 2Ch 30:21 Ne 8:18
YOWM WFYOWM Est 3:4

Since YOWM YOWM, YOWM B.:YOWM and MIY.OWM L:YOWM all mean "day by day", 
it seems reasonable that YOWM L:YOWM can also mean the same thing.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
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