Biblical Hebrew Forum

[CS Bartholomew <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>]

On 9/22/03 8:06 AM, "Pastor Mark Eddy" <markeddy AT adams.net> wrote:

> What is the subject of the verbs AMaR and YHaWeH (yod-chet-waw-heh) in Psalm
> 19:3? Is one YOM telling something to another YOM, and one LaYLaH revealing
> something to another (as in NASB)? Or is HaRaQiYa' of verse 2 the subject of
> the verbs in verse 3, with the time references being adverbial (as the NIV
> seems to read it)? And how do we know? All the nouns are masculine singular,
> so they agree with the masculine singular verbs.

Returning to Pastor Eddy's question:

Take a look at mywM lywM in the following:

Psa. 96:2 #yrw lyhwh brkw #mw b#rw mywM lywM y#w(tw

Esth. 3:7 bxd# hr)#wN hw) xd# nysN b#nt #tyM (#rh lmlK )x#wrw# hpyl pwr hw)
hgwrl lpny hmN mywM lywM wmxd# lxd# #nyM (#r hw) xd# )dr s

Looks like mywM lywM is adverbial does it not?
Now could ywM lywM in Psa. 19:3 be another way of encoding mywM lywM ?

Psa. 19:3 ywM lywM yby( )mr wlylh llylh yxwh d(t

I suspect that it is just that, but I am just a Hellenist so my opinion
doesn't have any weight.


greetings,
Clay Bartholomew