Biblical Hebrew Forum

[CS Bartholomew <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>]

On 9/22/03 8:06 AM, "Pastor Mark Eddy" <markeddy AT adams.net> wrote:

> What is the subject of the verbs AMaR and YHaWeH (yod-chet-waw-heh) in Psalm
> 19:3? Is one YOM telling something to another YOM, and one LaYLaH revealing
> something to another (as in NASB)? Or is HaRaQiYa' of verse 2 the subject of
> the verbs in verse 3, with the time references being adverbial (as the NIV
> seems to read it)? And how do we know? All the nouns are masculine singular,
> so they agree with the masculine singular verbs.


Psa. 19:2 h#myM mspryM kbwd )l wm(#h ydyw mgyd hrqy(
Psa. 19:3 ywM lywM yby( )mr wlylh llylh yxwh d(t
Psa. 19:4 )yN )mr w)yN dbryM bly n#m( qwlM
Psa. 19:5 bkl h)rC yc) qwM wbqch tbl mlyhM l#m# #M )hl bh

Mark,

 )mr is tagged as a noun in  )mr  in Groves-Wheeler* which agrees with the
LXX  hrema.  ywM lywM looks like an adverbial expression limiting yby(. I
wonder if  )mr is the subject or the object of yby(. It is ambiguous in the
LXX since hrema is neuter. Wheeler tags it accusative, I suspect he is
right. 

I would not get too exercised over trying to choose between h#myM or m(#h
ydyw as the subject of yby( and yxwh. Why not both?

greetings,
Clay Bartholomew 
 
*Groves-Wheeler Westminster Hebrew Morphology (Release 3.5) ©1991,
1994,1999, 2001 Westminster Theological Seminary, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
USA.