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  • From: Jim West <jwest AT highland.net>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
  • Date: Tue, 18 Jan 2005 14:22:58 -0500



Tim Gallant wrote:

Jim West asks,

How will OT texts be any more authoritative for non jews than would Homer or Socrates?


For the same reason that Paul identifies Jesus as "Christ" for those same non-Jews.

What would the typical Greek have understood by the word "anointed"? Because, as you will surely know, when Paul uses "christos" it isn't yet a Title or a capitalized term. Its just a word. Jesus "the" anointed would have meant something completely different than most Christians today understand it. But the problem is, what?

He never pretends that they are adopting a new religion just dropped fresh out of the sky. The gospel for the world is the salvation of Israel.

Im not sure if the average greek on the street would have given a thought to the salvation of Israel. Would they have really cared all that much? I dont think so. I think, in fact, that any language Paul used would have resonated from their own upbringing in the Mysteries. Blood, washing, salvation, all that stuff wouldn't have been heard by greeks the same way it was by jews. When Paul spoke to greeks did they hear what he meant or what they understood?
Jim


--
Jim West, ThD
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com







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