Corpus-Paul

[Edgar Krentz <ekrentz AT sbcglobal.net>]

I only wish to make one small comment about what Mark
wrote in his long submission. I agree that Paul
regards the Torah as normative--when he is writing to
a group that includes Jews who have come to accept
Jesus as messiah.

But that is a mark of his arguementation. He does not
cite or refer to Torah in 1 Thessalonians or in
Philippians, when his addressees appear to be
gentiles. Clearly Romans and Galatians, and likely
both Coreinthian documents included Jews in their
congregations. [Philemon does not use the OT!] So one
perhaps should ask whether Paul's use of the Torah is
simply a warrant that is useful when addressing Jews,
but not when addressing gentiles.

Ed Krentz

--- "Mark D. Nanos" <nanosmd AT comcast.net> wrote:
> It is clear to me that Paul continued to use the
> Torah to teach from, and
> that he understood that it was authoritative for
> those he addressed in his
> letters. Do I need to argue this? He cites Torah to
> legitimate his
> arguments, and he appeals to Torah as
> normative--according to his
> interpretation of it, of course--for even Torah
> requires this exercise, and
> cannot simply be quoted so that the meaning is self
> evident! 



=====
Edgar and Becky Krentz
Christ Seminary Seminex Prof. of NT Emeritus
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 E. 55th Street
Chicago, IL 60615

ekrentz AT sbcglobal.net