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  • From: Jim West <jwest AT highland.net>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
  • Date: Tue, 18 Jan 2005 10:04:49 -0500



Mark D Nanos wrote:

So Romans aside, how does one know that there are not Jews in the mix in the
letters where no Scripture is quoted, but only in the ones where it is,
except on the basis that Scripture is quoted or not?

Your answer here seems to suggest something that doesn't quite wash:

What do we know? No doubt he chooses to use Scripture because he believes it
is compelling, authoritative for his audience of non-Jews,
How will OT texts be any more authoritative for non jews than would Homer or Socrates? It makes perfect sense to suggest that Paul doesn't use OT texts with non Jews because there is no point in it- just as it makes perfect sense to suggest he uses OT texts for Jewish audiences precisely because they will "get it". Gentiles won't "get it" so theres no point in using it.

Best,

Jim


--
Jim West, ThD
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com







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