Corpus-Paul

[Jim West <jwest AT highland.net>]

Mark D Nanos wrote:

> So Romans aside, how does one know that there are not Jews in the mix in the
> letters where no Scripture is quoted, but only in the ones where it is,
> except on the basis that Scripture is quoted or not?
>  
Your answer here seems to suggest something that doesn't quite wash:

> What do we know? No doubt he chooses to use Scripture because he believes it
> is compelling, authoritative for his audience of non-Jews, 
How will OT texts be any more authoritative for non jews than would 
Homer or Socrates?  It makes perfect sense to suggest that Paul doesn't 
use OT texts with non Jews because there is no point in it- just as it 
makes perfect sense to suggest he uses OT texts for Jewish audiences 
precisely because they will "get it".  Gentiles won't "get it" so theres 
no point in using it.

Best,

Jim


--
Jim West, ThD
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com