Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

corpus-paul - Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?

corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Corpus-Paul

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: Edgar Krentz <ekrentz AT sbcglobal.net>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
  • Date: Tue, 18 Jan 2005 05:54:58 -0800 (PST)

Thanks, Mark. I think that your reply supports my
point Romans, Galatians and 2 Corinthians are written
to communities with Jewish people in the mix. 1
Corinthians is more of a problem for me.

But 1 Thessalonians, Philippians and Philemon do not
use OT materials. Hence my point in the first post.
Paul does use the Torah when it is a compelling
argument, does not in other circumst ances.
Ed Krentz

-- "Mark D. Nanos" <nanosmd AT comcast.net> wrote:

> Edgar,
> In Rom 11:13 Paul writes that he is "speaking to you
> Gentiles" as "the
> apostle to the Gentiles," and proceeds to cite
> Scripture to legitimate his
> arguments. In Gal 4:8 and elsewhere he writes to
> those who formerly
> worshiped idols and who are not circumcised or
> Torah-people, and proceeds to
> cite Scripture to legitimate his arguments. In 1 Cor
> 8--10 he writes to
> people who formerly thought that idols were gods and
> ate idol food, and
> cites Scripture to legitimate his arguments. So I do
> not see how the point
> you suggest in your short submission works in this
> case.
>
> Regards,
> Mark
> --
> Mark D. Nanos, Ph.D.
> Rockhurst University
> Co-Moderator
> http://home.comcast.net/~nanosmd/
>
>
> on 1/17/05 7:41 PM, Edgar Krentz at
> ekrentz AT sbcglobal.net wrote:
>
> > I only wish to make one small comment about what
> Mark
> > wrote in his long submission. I agree that Paul
> > regards the Torah as normative--when he is writing
> to
> > a group that includes Jews who have come to accept
> > Jesus as messiah.
> >
> > But that is a mark of his arguementation. He does
> not
> > cite or refer to Torah in 1 Thessalonians or in
> > Philippians, when his addressees appear to be
> > gentiles. Clearly Romans and Galatians, and likely
> > both Coreinthian documents included Jews in their
> > congregations. [Philemon does not use the OT!] So
> one
> > perhaps should ask whether Paul's use of the Torah
> is
> > simply a warrant that is useful when addressing
> Jews,
> > but not when addressing gentiles.
> >
> > Ed Krentz
> >
> > --- "Mark D. Nanos" <nanosmd AT comcast.net> wrote:
> >> It is clear to me that Paul continued to use the
> >> Torah to teach from, and
> >> that he understood that it was authoritative for
> >> those he addressed in his
> >> letters. Do I need to argue this? He cites Torah
> to
> >> legitimate his
> >> arguments, and he appeals to Torah as
> >> normative--according to his
> >> interpretation of it, of course--for even Torah
> >> requires this exercise, and
> >> cannot simply be quoted so that the meaning is
> self
> >> evident!
> >
> >
> >
> > =====
> > Edgar and Becky Krentz
> > Christ Seminary Seminex Prof. of NT Emeritus
> > Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
> > 1100 E. 55th Street
> > Chicago, IL 60615
> >
> > ekrentz AT sbcglobal.net
> > _______________________________________________
> > Corpus-Paul mailing list
> > Corpus-Paul AT lists.ibiblio.org
> >
>
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/corpus-paul
>
> _______________________________________________
> Corpus-Paul mailing list
> Corpus-Paul AT lists.ibiblio.org
>
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/corpus-paul
>


=====
Edgar and Becky Krentz
Christ Seminary Seminex Prof. of NT Emeritus
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 E. 55th Street
Chicago, IL 60615

ekrentz AT sbcglobal.net




Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page