Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Remark, Karl:
In a general way the N of suffix -NW that refers to the 3rd person singular
masculine has dagesh. This is the so called "energic nun".
You pay little attention to the masoretic pointing, but........  many times
it is quite useful!

The fact that here and there mistakes appear in the pointing does not mean
or imply that points are always mistaken!

Compare these two patterns:

http://www.oham.net/out/PS-t/PS-t0943.html
and
http://www.oham.net/out/PS-t/PS-t0944.html

They are nearly identical! Their main difference is just the dagesh in the
N (and the consequent reduction of the preceding vowel: tsere > segol).

Remark: if in the page of pattern PS-t0944 you try to take a look on the
variant PS-t0625 by clicking on the corresponding link and a page appears
saying that you'd pay per view, click on «Next» in the upper right corner
of this page and the free page will open.

Regards

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)

2012/5/5 K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>

> Pere:
>
>  Reasons for some of my questions:
>
>
> The -NW suffix can be used even on the same verb for the first person
> plural, and the third person masculine singular. E.g. יאכלנו Y)KLNW in
> Numbers 11:4, 18 “make us eat” but in Numbers 18:13 “he should eat it”. Or
> תאכלנו T)KLNW “you should eat it” Numbers 18:10 while “it (fire) eats us”
> in Deuteronomy 5:25.
>
>
> The -HW suffix is found on lamed he verbs, e.g. ויבזהו YBZHW 1 Samuel
> 17:42 “he had disdain, contempt for him”, while in 1 Samuel 10:27 merely is
> a plural “they disdained”.
>
>
> So far I have not found any verbs that can use both suffixes, rather it
> seems that those verbs that use the -NW suffix do not use the -HW suffix,
> and visa versa. So far I have not found a pattern to explain the difference.
>
>
> One idea I had is that maybe the choice of which suffix to use was
> connected to the form of the verb, but נמכרנו NMKRNW Genesis 37:27 and
> תזכרנו TZKRNW Psalm 8:4 take the -NW suffix, while יתארהו YT)RHW Isaiah
> 44:13 (also another example of a lamed he verb taking a -HW suffix יעשהו
> Y(%HW) and ישרהו Y$MRHW Psalm 41:3 (yet another example of a lamed he verb
> taking the -HW suffix, יחיהו YXYHW) which seems to argue against the form
> (in this case the final resh) indicating which suffix to use.
>
>
> After writing the above, I found an example of a verb that takes both the
> -HW and -NW suffixes to refer to a third person singular masculine object:
> ראה R)H in Psalm 91:16 אראהו )R)HW, Isaiah 53:2 נראהו NR)HW, many other
> examples, while Genesis 45:28 ואראנו )R)NW, also Numbers 23:9, 24:17,
> Jeremiah 23:24, Micah 7:15 and other examples.
>
>
> Oy veh! This study instead of answering my questions, has only raised more!
>
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> On Fri, May 4, 2012 at 10:54 PM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Verbs lamed-heh (nowadays lamed-yod) clearly tend to take the suffix -NW.
>> Look for instance at http://www.oham.net/out/PS-d/PS-d2421.html
>> Now, sometimes suffix -HW is also found:
>> http://www.oham.net/out/PS-d/PS-d1038.html
>>
>> but remark: this is suffix -HW, not suffix -W (so that the preceding H
>> would be part to the root)
>>
>> Friendly,
>>
>> Pere Porta
>>
>>
>


-- 
Pere Porta