Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Kenneth:

Whoops, sorry, that was a typo. I meant Isaiah 10:2 which has two other
verbs before the “to be” that has the same use.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Mon, Aug 8, 2011 at 9:34 PM, kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com> wrote:

>  Karl,
>
> You wrote Isaiah 2:4, but I think you meant Malachi 2:4. Anyway, you said
> that the infinitives of other verbs are used the same way. Could you point
> out one or two examples of other verbs used the same way as "to be" in
> Malachi 2:4? I was just trying to understand a literal way of translating
> the quote because it does seem to be strange that the "le" is in front of
> the infinitive, but the translation has it in front of the subject of the
> verb. " I sent my commandment to you for (that) My covenant to be (will be)
> with Levi."
>
> I have seen Isaiah 49:6 translated both ways. "I have given you for a light
> of nations to be My salvation unto the end of the earth" and "I have given
> you for a light of nations for My salvation to be unto the end of the
> earth." Which do you think makes sense?
>
> Kenneth Greifer
>
>