Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Barry H." <nebarry AT verizon.net>]

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "kenneth greifer" <greifer AT hotmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, August 07, 2011 10:42 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Malachi 2:4


> Barry,
>
> Thank you for answering me.
>
> I am trying to understand why they move the "le" in Malachi 2:4 and in
> Isaiah 49:6.
>
> Malachi 2:4 usually says "I have sent this commandment to you (le) that
> (for) My covenant to be with Levi" instead of "I have sent this
> commandment to you for (le) the being of My covenant with Levi". Does it
> literally say "for the being of My covenant" of "for My covenant to be"?
> Is common to move the "le" or is it just done in this kind of quote?
>
> Isaiah 49:6 is translated as "I have given you for a light of nations to
> be My salvation unto the ends of the earth" or "I have given you for a
> light of nations for My salvation to be unto the ends of the earth."
> Should it literally be translated "for the being of My salvation"? Are
> infinitives used as constructs or whatever they grammatically call this?

Again, I should let the real Hebrew experts respond, but translation wants
to capture the sense of what is said in good English, not a literalistic
interlinear type gloss.  If the infinitive construct is used to express
purpose, then there is more than one correct way to render it into good
English stylistically.  The "translationese" type of rendering that you
appear to be attempting might be ok as a first step in a classroom exercise,
but you don't want to end there.

N.E. Barry Hofstetter, semper melius Latine sonat...
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
(2010 Salvatori Excellence in Education Winner)

The North American Reformed Seminary
http://www.tnars.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry