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  • From: kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Malachi 2:4
  • Date: Sun, 7 Aug 2011 14:42:48 +0000


Barry,

Thank you for answering me.

I am trying to understand why they move the "le" in Malachi 2:4 and in Isaiah
49:6.

Malachi 2:4 usually says "I have sent this commandment to you (le) that (for)
My covenant to be with Levi" instead of "I have sent this commandment to you
for (le) the being of My covenant with Levi". Does it literally say "for the
being of My covenant" of "for My covenant to be"? Is common to move the "le"
or is it just done in this kind of quote?

Isaiah 49:6 is translated as "I have given you for a light of nations to be
My salvation unto the ends of the earth" or "I have given you for a light of
nations for My salvation to be unto the ends of the earth." Should it
literally be translated "for the being of My salvation"? Are infinitives used
as constructs or whatever they grammatically call this?

Kenneth Greifer



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