Biblical Hebrew Forum

[tedbro AT aol.com]

Doug:
 
Right! The verse and its context are Messianic. I'm not sure what bearing  
it has, however, on the vocalization of YHWH. When Jeremiah says, "He will 
be  called..."? Do you understand that the name would necessarily be 
pronounced as  written?
 
If so, one problem with that interpretation is the source of the  
pronunciation. We all agree that the consonantal text is much older than the  
vowels, 
right? The text of Jeremiah is commonly dated to the early 6th century  
BCE. The vowels were added by the Massoretes somewhere in the range of 1,000  
years later. The questions are: a) Did the Massoretes know Jeremiah's 
intended  pronunciation? and b) Even if they did, was the way they inserted 
vowels 
into  the text influenced by the tradition against pronouncing the name?
 
Holiday Cheers All Around,
Ted Brownstein
 
 
 
 
In a message dated 12/26/2009 4:53:59 A.M. Eastern Standard Time,  
dbelot AT bigpond.net.au writes:

Would  you not think that in this passage in Jeremiah...


Jer 23:6   And in His days Judah will be saved and Israel will dwell 
safely, 
Now this  is His name by which He wil becalled YHWH Our righteousness.

Surely  this is referring to the comming Messiah , thats what all Rabbai's 
I 
have  contacted seem to think , so when this Messiah comes , will he not be 
 
called by this name?

What else could it mean .

doug  belot