Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yodan" <yodan AT yodanco.com>]

I noticed, but the question is - do you not consider the Shva under Beit to
be a vowel? It's a Shva Na, so it is a vowel, even though a short one, so -
back to my question - what's in your view the difference between BEIT in
Diber and in Dibra? 

 

Rivka Sherman-Gold

 

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From: Isaac Fried [mailto:if AT math.bu.edu] 
Sent: Monday, February 23, 2009 7:14 PM
To: yodan AT yodanco.com
Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org Hebrew
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?

 

Notice what I have said before about the natural doubling of a consonant
between two vowels. 

 

Isaac Fried, Boston University

 

On Feb 23, 2009, at 9:56 PM, Yodan wrote:





Isaac,

 

You say "notice that no doubling may occur in DIBRAH". It seems that you are
contrasting this with DIBBER. But it's not clear:

 

Are you saying that neither Diber nor Dibra had ever had doubling OR are you
saying that while Diber may have had doubling (even though you don't think
so), it's obvious that Dibra may not have doubling.

 

In short, is there, in your view, a difference between Diber and Dibra with
respect to the dagesh in Beit? If so, what's the difference?

 

(Apologies if I misunderstood what you were saying.)

 

Rivka Sherman-Gold

 

 

 

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Isaac Fried
Sent: Monday, February 23, 2009 5:26 PM
To: Jason Hare
Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?

 

Jason,

 

Arab diction has its peculiarities which are of no concern to Hebrew.

There is a universally natural doubling of a consonant located 

between two vowels, for instance DIBBER, 'he spoke', but this has 

nothing to do with the dagesh in the B. There is no indication that 

an exaggerated, over-natural, doubling, say DIB---BER, was ever 

practiced in Hebrew.

I think that the purpose of the dagesh in B of DBR is only to 

indicate the lack of the preceding vowel I.

Notice that no doubling may occur in DIBRAH, 'she spoke'.

 

Isaac Fried, Boston University

 

On Feb 23, 2009, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:

 

> I'll bite. If shadda doesn't represent the doubling of a consonant, 

> what

> does it represent? The same question with the dagesh chazak?

> 

> They are indeed the same thing, as Uri stated.

> 

> Jason Hare

> Rehovot, Israel

> 

> On Mon, Feb 23, 2009 at 6:37 PM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:

> 

>> The Arabic Shadda is not the Hebrew dagesh XAZAQ.

>> 

>> Isaac Fried

> _______________________________________________

> b-hebrew mailing list

> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew

 

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