Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?

b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: <yodan AT yodanco.com>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?
  • Date: Mon, 23 Feb 2009 22:14:27 -0500

Notice what I have said before about the natural doubling of a consonant between two vowels.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Feb 23, 2009, at 9:56 PM, Yodan wrote:

Isaac,

You say "notice that no doubling may occur in DIBRAH". It seems that you are contrasting this with DIBBER. But it's not clear:

Are you saying that neither Diber nor Dibra had ever had doubling OR are you saying that while Diber may have had doubling (even though you don’t think so), it’s obvious that Dibra may not have doubling.

In short, is there, in your view, a difference between Diber and Dibra with respect to the dagesh in Beit? If so, what's the difference?

(Apologies if I misunderstood what you were saying.)

Rivka Sherman-Gold



-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew- bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Isaac Fried
Sent: Monday, February 23, 2009 5:26 PM
To: Jason Hare
Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?

Jason,

Arab diction has its peculiarities which are of no concern to Hebrew.
There is a universally natural doubling of a consonant located
between two vowels, for instance DIBBER, 'he spoke', but this has
nothing to do with the dagesh in the B. There is no indication that
an exaggerated, over-natural, doubling, say DIB---BER, was ever
practiced in Hebrew.
I think that the purpose of the dagesh in B of DBR is only to
indicate the lack of the preceding vowel I.
Notice that no doubling may occur in DIBRAH, 'she spoke'.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Feb 23, 2009, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:

> I'll bite. If shadda doesn't represent the doubling of a consonant,
> what
> does it represent? The same question with the dagesh chazak?
>
> They are indeed the same thing, as Uri stated.
>
> Jason Hare
> Rehovot, Israel
>
> On Mon, Feb 23, 2009 at 6:37 PM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:
>
>> The Arabic Shadda is not the Hebrew dagesh XAZAQ.
>>
>> Isaac Fried
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew

_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew





Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page