Biblical Hebrew Forum

[George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>]

I can just see this thread spinning out of control and plummeting to the 
earth. Let's get it back on track.

Does anyone have anything further to offer in response to John Stevens' 
original questions:

> I was wondering, does the presence/absence of the dagesh alone change
> the meaning of the word in any way?



Regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
Co-Moderator, B-Hebrew
(Sydney, Australia)