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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?

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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: Jason Hare <jaihare AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?
  • Date: Mon, 23 Feb 2009 20:25:59 -0500

Jason,

Arab diction has its peculiarities which are of no concern to Hebrew.
There is a universally natural doubling of a consonant located between two vowels, for instance DIBBER, 'he spoke', but this has nothing to do with the dagesh in the B. There is no indication that an exaggerated, over-natural, doubling, say DIB---BER, was ever practiced in Hebrew.
I think that the purpose of the dagesh in B of DBR is only to indicate the lack of the preceding vowel I.
Notice that no doubling may occur in DIBRAH, 'she spoke'.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Feb 23, 2009, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:

I'll bite. If shadda doesn't represent the doubling of a consonant, what
does it represent? The same question with the dagesh chazak?

They are indeed the same thing, as Uri stated.

Jason Hare
Rehovot, Israel

On Mon, Feb 23, 2009 at 6:37 PM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:

The Arabic Shadda is not the Hebrew dagesh XAZAQ.

Isaac Fried
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