Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>]

Jason,

Arab diction has its peculiarities which are of no concern to Hebrew.
There is a universally natural doubling of a consonant located  
between two vowels, for instance DIBBER, 'he spoke', but this has  
nothing to do with the dagesh in the B. There is no indication that  
an exaggerated, over-natural, doubling, say DIB---BER, was ever  
practiced in Hebrew.
I think that the purpose of the dagesh in B of DBR is only to  
indicate the lack of the preceding vowel I.
Notice that no doubling may occur in DIBRAH, 'she spoke'.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Feb 23, 2009, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:

> I'll bite. If shadda doesn't represent the doubling of a consonant,  
> what
> does it represent? The same question with the dagesh chazak?
>
> They are indeed the same thing, as Uri stated.
>
> Jason Hare
> Rehovot, Israel
>
> On Mon, Feb 23, 2009 at 6:37 PM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:
>
> > The Arabic Shadda is not the Hebrew dagesh XAZAQ.
> >
> > Isaac Fried
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