Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Peter:

On 4/11/07, Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org> wrote:
...
> I could understand Harold and Bryant wanting to reject my suggested
> interpretation on the basis of the future verbs in the verse as quoted
> by Jesus, and in LXX. But I don't see why you are insisting on this.
>
> --
> Peter Kirk
> E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
> Blog:    http://www.qaya.org/blog/
> Website: http://www.qaya.org/
I am not a Greek scholar, all I know is enough to read the New
Testament. But I have met students of the Greek language who decry the
quality of Greek recorded in the New Testament as being more or less
corrupted: some have told me that the Gospel they found the hardest to
read based on its corruption of the language is the one I find easiest
to read, namely John.

With this as a background, how much can we trust the classical
understanding of Greek verbal usages to inform us how the authors of
the LXX and New Testament used the same? And how the Hebrew was
understood at that time?

Karl W. Randolph.