Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

Yes,
You make sense.  This whole area of verbal adjectives seems to be vague.  
Jouon
makes reference to an essay by Rubinstein in IOS that I have ordered by
inter-library loan.  I hope it clears the air a little.
Lee Martin

Bryan Rocine wrote:

> Dear Lee,
>
> Your posts have been helpful, and thanks for the Jouon-Muraoka references.
> J-M does seem to treat verbal adjectives more insightfully than some other
> grammars.  I'm still a bit stuck on a very minor point, calling simxah in 1
> Ki 1:40 a direct object, the reason being the verbal adjective s:mexiym is
> intransitive.  Along with considering whether a verb is stative or active,
> we also need to consider the parameter of transitivity.  Of the verbal
> adjectives, smx(be glad) in the Qal is intransitive as is ml'(be full), in
> contrast to sn'(hate) which is transitive, and yr'(fear) which straddles
> the fence between transitive and intransitive.  The nouns which follow the
> verbal adjectives in the verses below are in the genitive relationship to
> the verb. adj. rather than the accusative--not genitive as in possessive
> but in its adnominal(or descriptive) sense.  So when it comes to the verbal
> adjectives that are bound to a following noun, we not only blur the line
> between adjective and participle, we also blur the line between
> verb/adjective and noun.
>
> Take for instance your examples:
> Num 7:13  there is no filling of a person or thing as with ml' in the Piel
> stem.  Rather, the vessels were full *of* flour, etc.
> Deu 6:11  houses are not filling anything; they are filled *with* good.
> Mal 3:1  they are not delighting(transitive) the messenger; they are taking
> pleasure(intransitive) *in* the messenger.
>
> Back to 1 Ki 1:40.  If simxah g:dolah is indeed part of the same clause
> with s:mexiym then its relationship with s:mexiym would be descriptive:
> "...and rejoicing with great joy."
>
> Am I making sense?  Like I said , a minor point.
>
> Shalom,
> Bryan
>
> ----------
> > From: Lee R. Martin <lmartin AT vol.com>
> > To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> > Subject: Re: 1 Kgs 1:40
> > Date: Friday, November 20, 1998 3:39 PM
> >
> > I have found some parallels with 1 Kings 1:40, using the verb MaLe'
> (full).  The
> > participle and the adjective are identical in form, and in the following
> verses, the
> > adjective is not in the expected construct state, but is in the absolute,
> like we saw
> > in 1Kings:  Num. 7:13; 19, 25, etc. Deut. 6:11; Neh. 9:25; Jer. 5:27;
> 35:5; Ezek.
> > 10:12.  So how does BDB and Even-Shoshan know that these are adjectives
> and not
> > participles? Evan-Shoshan lists one Qal Ptc., Isa. 6:1.
> >
> > The verb YaR'e (fear) is listed in BDB with both ptc. and adj. meaning
> "afraid." All
> > seven of the plural forms are pointed just like our example in 1Kings,
> and some of
> > them have direct objects.
> >
> > Cf. also Malachi 3:1, ChaPheTsiM, parsed as an adjective.  "Messenger" is
> the object
> > of this adjective/participle.
> >
> > Lee Martin
>
> B. M. Rocine
> Associate Pastor
> Living Word Church
> 6101 Court St. Rd.
> Syracuse, NY 13208
>
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