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b-hebrew - Re[2]: 1 Kgs 1:40

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  • From: Peter_Kirk AT sil.org
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re[2]: 1 Kgs 1:40
  • Date: Wed, 18 Nov 1998 12:04 -0500 (EST)


I wonder if Bryan and Paul got it right the first time in taking
w.&:m"xiym as the participle of &MX "rejoice" rather than as the
adjective &FM"AX. If so, they are folowing BDB, which suggests &FM"AX
as the irregular form of the participle of &MX, although &OM"AX would
normally be expected. Thus BDB suggests that &FM"AX had participle
force in 1 Kings 1:40, 4:20, 2 Kings 11:14 = 2 Chr. 23:13, and Ec.
2:10. There is apparently no other participle form of &MX. I suppose
the reason for the variant form (at least here and in 4:20) could
simply be that the dot of the holem became merged with the dot of the
sin, and so it looked as if the consonant was vowel-less, so some
scribe moved the shewa from the waw to the sin and added the dagesh to
the waw to tidy up. This understanding would certainly avoid the need
for the type of grammatical gymnastics which are being suggested and
make the verse in question really rather simple.

Peter Kirk







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