Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter_Kirk AT sil.org]

Dear Bryan,

I'm sorry, but your reasoning is circular. On what grounds do you say 
that the verb $MX is intransitive? Because of its usage in BH, i.e. in 
the Biblical texts (plus, perhaps, Sirach and a few broken pots). So 
when you find an example in which $MX apparently takes a direct object 
you have to find another explanation. Better argue as follows: 
Hypothesis: $MX is intransitive. Test against data: $MX appears to 
take a direct object in  1 Kings 1:40. Conclusion: either the 
hypothesis is incorrect (and $MX, like YR', can be both transitive and 
intransitive); or there is some other explanation of the data; or 
both!

And I am afraid I am not convinced by your alternative explanations. 
Why can Hebrew not have transitive verbs with the meaning 
"be-full-of", "take-pleasure-in" etc? Different languages vary in such 
matters. You might similarly argue that "wait-for" could not be a 
transitive verb - until you remember that we have an English 
transitive verb with that meaning, "await".

Peter Kirk