Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Reinhard G.Lehmann" <lehmann AT mail.Uni-Mainz.de>]

I think the question of Kirk Lowery is best answered when the second 
part in 1 Kgs 1:40b (w.&:m"xiym &im:xfh g:dowlfh) is understood as a 
case of accusative, the pl. adj. &:m"xiym understood as having somewhat 
verbal power (compare 1 Chr. 29:9 with a finite form of the root &MX 
with the same accusative).

The participle of &MX is (as far as I see) only attested twice (Ps 19:9 
and Jdc 9:13, both piel), and there is no part. qal - no wonder because 
&MX at first glance seems to be intransitive. There is only the one 
instance of real transitive &MX qal (with direct object) 1 Chr. 29:9 
(the normal construction is prepositional, &MX B or &MX L), and the 
object here (&im:xfh g:dowlfh) is what we call in german 'effiziertes' 
object (sorry, but I miss the english word) without an 'affiziertes' 
(means direct) object. The same is the case in 1 Kgs 1:40, but here the 
sentence could not use a finite verb as in 1 Chr 29:9 because &:m"xiym 
&im:xfh g:dowlfh is a circumstantial clause ('Chalsatz') to w:hf`fm 
m:xal.:liym, that actually demands a nominal form in the first position, 
here a participle. Because there is no real participle of &MX qal, the 
closest alternative is to choose the adjective.

IMHO the verse is to translate as follows:
"... And the people played flutes, meanwhile they were rejoicing a great 
joy".

Greetings
reinhard g.lehmann


 
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       Reinhard G. Lehmann
       Lect. for Classical Hebrew and Aramaic
       Johannes-Gutenberg Universitaet Mainz
       D - 55099 Mainz
       tel: +49 - 6131 - 39 3284
       mailto:lehmann AT mail.uni-mainz.de
       http://www.uni-mainz.de/~lehmann
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