Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

Dear Peter,
As I wrote earlier, this class of verbs do not normally have participles.  
This is
most definitely an adjective. But it is used like a participle in order to 
fill in the
gap left by the absence of the participle.  It is a verbal adjective that can 
be
transitive (having a direct object).
Lee Martin

Peter_Kirk AT sil.org wrote:

> I wonder if Bryan and Paul got it right the first time in taking
> w.&:m"xiym as the participle of &MX "rejoice" rather than as the
> adjective &FM"AX. If so, they are folowing BDB, which suggests &FM"AX
> as the irregular form of the participle of &MX, although &OM"AX would
> normally be expected. Thus BDB suggests that &FM"AX had participle
> force in 1 Kings 1:40, 4:20, 2 Kings 11:14 = 2 Chr. 23:13, and Ec.
> 2:10. There is apparently no other participle form of &MX. I suppose
> the reason for the variant form (at least here and in 4:20) could
> simply be that the dot of the holem became merged with the dot of the
> sin, and so it looked as if the consonant was vowel-less, so some
> scribe moved the shewa from the waw to the sin and added the dagesh to
> the waw to tidy up. This understanding would certainly avoid the need
> for the type of grammatical gymnastics which are being suggested and
> make the verse in question really rather simple.
>
> Peter Kirk
>
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