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  • From: Jim West <jwest AT highland.net>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
  • Date: Wed, 12 Jan 2005 14:15:38 -0500

At 02:00 PM 1/12/2005, you wrote:

I think you have two separate questions there. Paul has only one way of salvation: through the Messiah. Torah has become relativized in terms of its distinctives. But that very relativization means that Jews are free to continue to observe it (with the notable exception of any instances where it might bar full communion with Gentile Christians). Hence, in Acts (which I am assuming reliability for) you find Paul himself observing a Nazarite vow, and worshipping in the temple when he is in Jerusalem. There is never the slightest hint that he expects Jewish Christians to leave off circumcising their children. (And of course there is the tricky case of Timothy in Acts 16.1-3.)

Perhaps- but in the end you still end up with a bifurcated soteriology in Paul. For Jews, its through Torah observance with the Jesus addendum (nothing else really changes does it) and for the gentiles you have Jesus with a sort of morality addendum.

My difficulty is not that Paul had one set of standards for Jews and another for Gentiles... oh wait, yes, it is after all just exactly that. If Torah is relativized, as you suggest, then which parts must observant jewish Christians observe? And which parts not? And who decides?

Thanks

Jim


++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD

http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com Biblical Theology Weblog
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