Corpus-Paul

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Lee,

> The two references cited so far with reference to Paul's view of the 
> law (Rom.10.4; 1Cor.9.20,21) are found in letters addressed to and 
> dealing with Gentiles.  I wonder to what degree Paul thought of 
> himself as having "become like you [Gentiles]" (e.g., 1Cor9.21; 
> Gal4.12).  This might explain why he doesn't see the need to follow 
> this sort of laws, or what someone has termed "ceremonial" laws.  (I 
> myself do not see a splitting of the law into types: ceremonial, 
> moral, judicial.)  I do not find Paul calling for Jews to abandon 
> the law at all.  In fact, there are explicit calls for the exact 
> opposite (e.g., 1Cor7.17-224).  So, I don't see Paul doing away with 
> the law entirely; rather, he seems to be saying that Gentiles are 
> legit without having to follow the law, while seldom (I would say 
> never) addressing the issue as regards Jews.

HH: No, Paul says that he is not under the law (1 Cor 9:20). He is no 
exception, if he isn't, no believer is. Jim seems to be 
misunderstanding the concept of not being under the law. It does not 
mean that a person no longer need obey God's moral law. It means that 
Christ is now the standard for one's living, not the Mosaic law. If 
the Holy Spirit is in a person, he will meet the righteous 
requirements of the law (Rom 8:4). But he will do so under the 
leadership of the Spirit and not as a matter of trying to satisfy the 
demands of the Mosaic code.

HH: The Jews are not under different requirements that the Gentiles 
as far as God is concerned. We are all one new man in Christ (Eph 
2:15). This theory of Jews having special obligations to God now that 
their Gentile brothers don't have is a misunderstanding of Scripture. 
By the way, to read certain epistles as aimed only at Gentiles also 
seems a misunderstanding. Paul speaks spiritual truth that at times 
has special application for the Gentiles, but truth is truth. It 
applies to everyone. Paul does not say that circumcision means 
nothing only for Gentiles. He means it is not spiritually important 
at this point. Circumcision was a way of showing God's people as 
distinct from all other people by an outward sign. That was good for 
the time when God was working with one nation and wanted to give them 
a special identity as a unique nation on earth. Now God considers all 
people alike as potential members of the body of Christ. There is no 
need to mark off one particular people outwardly as unique among the 
nations. God is not operating that way now.

HH: When I say this, I do not mean that God has forgotten His OT 
promises to the Jews, or that He no longer is aware of distinctions. 
I mean that in this age they are not significant spiritually. This is 
what Paul teaches, and to say that it only applies to Gentiles is to 
restrict the meaning of Paul's assertions too much.

                                        Yours,
                                        Harold Holmyard

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard