Corpus-Paul

["Doug A Chaplin" <lists AT actually.me.uk>]

> -----Original Message-----
> From: corpus-paul-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:corpus-paul-
> bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Jim West
> Sent: 12 January 2005 16:53
> To: Corpus-Paul
> Cc: biblical-studies AT yahoogroups.com
> Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul break the Law?
> 
> At 11:47 AM 1/12/2005, you wrote:
> >Jim, I think Paul recognized that the Mosaic law came
> >to an end or was rendered inoperative with Christ
> >(Rom.10:4). Thus I don't think Paul saw the Mosaic law
> >as binding on the Christian any longer. Paul saw
> >himself as not being under the law, "though I myself am
> >not under the law" (1 Cor.9:20), but that he was under
> >a new law, the "law of Christ" (1 Cor.9:21)which I take
> >to mean the new covenant law.
> 
> When Paul speaks of "not being under law" Isn't it the case that he is
> talking about the ceremonial law?  Or would Paul also have seen himself as
> outside [ potentially even 'above' ] the moral law too?
> 
Where exactly do you find any evidence that Paul made a distinction between
ceremonial and moral law in his writing about Torah?

Doug Chaplin