Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

Hello Isaac:

Your opinions imply a simple explanation to the problem:

1. verb + pp = past tense;

2. pp + verb = future tense;

3. vav prefix reverses "1" and "2;"

4. context can, and frequently does, change "1" - "3."

So, when reading the text, follow 1-4 for understanding of tense expressed
by verb usage.

regards,

fred burlingame

On Thu, Feb 3, 2011 at 10:13 AM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:

> I see what you are saying, and mostly agree with it, except that I prefer
> to look at it somewhat differently. For example, YI-CMAX, in Gen. 2:5,
> consists of the verb CAMAX, of the root CMX, 'grow', plus the pre-attached
> personal pronoun (pp), a.k.a identity marker, YI (which I consider a
> truncated HIY, 'she') and standing here for ESEB HASADEH, 'the grass of the
> field'.
> It appears that the ancient Hebrews came early on to an agreement to the
> effect that pp+act will indicate future action, but act+pp will indicate
> past action (otherwise, Hebrew has no time markers). But it needs not always
> be so. Thus, YI-CMAX is, on the face of it, just 'he-grow', no more and no
> less. Conventionally this form is intended to indicate future action, but we
> know by the time frame of the narrative, by the laws of nature, and also by
> the preceding word TEREM, that reference is here to the past.
> It appears to me that also YI-CMAX of Job 5:6 is but a statement of fact.
> Yet, the A-CMIAX of Ez. 29:21 is certainly a future promise.
> I have the feeling that YA-AL-EH of Gen. 2:6 is "repetitive".
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
>
>
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