Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

> From: Chris Echols
> Sent: Friday, September 10, 2010 10:26 AM
> To: b-hebrew
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Is there any such thing as
> "permissive"/"causative" tenses in Biblical Hebrew?
> 
> Thanks to all for the info.  I'm begining to read through some of the
> articles in NIDOTTE to learn a bit more about the Hebrew Bible and I
> see that in the particular case of Ex. 4:21, the "permissive" tense is
> pretty much out of the question, but on that verse, I would like to
> understand more about what I'm seeing
> here<http://dl.dropbox.com/u/3989663/Screen%20shot%202010-09-
> 10%20at%209.51.47%20AM.png>in
> the parsing of the Hebrew in that verse.(I put a screenshot in my
> dropbox)<http://dl.dropbox.com/u/3989663/Screen%20shot%202010-09-
> 10%20at%209.51.47%20AM.png>At
> this point I don't know a Lemma from a hole in the ground, so while I
> don't expect for anyone to give me a course in Hebrew via email, is
> there a quick and dirty explanation of the different columns and why
> some characters are left untranslated?
> 
> 
[SteveMiller:] Chris,

The Lemma is the root
ךָ (2nd row) should have been translated "your"
ם (5th row) could have been translated as "them" referring to "all the 
wonders"
אֶת (12th & 18th rows) tells us that the next word is the direct object. We 
don't have a counterpart in English
וֹ (14th row) should be translated "his"

The translation column is giving the translation of the root (Lemma), not the 
translation of the form of the word as it is in the verse.

Sincerely,
-Steve Miller
Detroit
www.voiceInWilderness.info
Judge me, O my Lord, for I have walked,
    walked in my integrity,
and I have put my trust in the Lord.
    I'll not slide away from Thee. (Ps 26:1)