Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Barry H." <nebarry AT verizon.net>]

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Chris Echols" <chrisechols AT gmail.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, September 08, 2010 7:30 PM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Is there any such thing as "permissive"/"causative" 
tenses in Biblical Hebrew?


> This permissive vs. causative theory says that this verse would better be 
> translated "...* but I will let his heart be hardened*..." as to remove 
> from God any active action in doing something evil.  To further drive home 
> the point, we see that Rotherham's Emphasized Bible translates this verse 
> as... “And Yahweh said unto Moses, When thou goest to return to Egypt, see 
> as touching all the wonders which I have put in thy hand, that thou do them 
> before Pharaoh—*but, I, will let his heart wax bold*, and he will not 
> suffer the people to go.” —Exodus 4:21 Rotherham

> What is your take on this phenomenon?

I think it's a theory based on theology, not Hebrew.

N.E. Barry Hofstetter, semper melius Latine sonat...
Classics and Bible Instructor, TAA
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
(2010 Savatori Excellence in Education Winner)
V-P of Academic Affairs, TNARS
bhofstetter AT tnars.net
http://www.tnars.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
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