Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk AT concentric.net>]

You don't have to think, it is known.

The four horns represent the four kingdoms - Babylonia, Persia/Medea, 
Greece, Rome, - that would persecute Israel, until the final 
Maschiach; the four carpenters  are the successive conquerers who 
would conquer these  kingdoms.  The fourth and final conquerer will 
be Mashiach.

Shoshanna



Steve,

I think that MAH ELEH BAIM LAASOT of Zechariah 2:4 (in the HB) refers
to the XARASHIM, the metal or wood cutters, who are destined to come
(VAYABOU ELEH) to rock loose (LeHAXARID), then cast away (LeYADOT)
the battering horns of the war machines brought to bear upon Israel.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Apr 9, 2007, at 6:51 PM, Steve Miller wrote:

> Zech 1:19 (2:2 MT)  last phrase ñ ìscattered Judah, Israel and
> Jerusalem.î
>
>  ʉ¯Âà ý™‘È¿”ÂÓ»” ý™‘ÈŸ˜"¿¯»ý‰Ï ŸȯÂØ-»Ï»ÕÌ"
>
> 1)     There is no ìandî prefix in front of Israel. Without the
> ìandî in
> front of Israel, does this mean Israel is not another element in
> the list,
> but is in apposition to ìJudahî?
>
>
>
> 2)     Is there any significance that ìetî, which points to the direct
> object, precedes Judah and Israel, but not Jerusalem?
>
>
>
> Zech 1:21 (2:4 MT) end phrase ìthese are come to affright them, to
> cast out
> the horns of the nations that lifted up a horn over the land of
> Judah to
> scatter it.î
>
>  «Èû·ŠýÂà ý‰ÏД Ï¿”«Á¬¯ŸÈ“ ýŠ™»Ì Ï¿È«“ʙ ý™‘—«¯¿•ŠÂ™ ”«’ÊÂȟÌ
>
>
>
> 1)Note that there is no ìandî before the infinitive form of the verb
> ìyadahî. In the above translation: ìto cast out the horns of the
> nationsî is
> in apposition to ìto affright themî. But that doesnít make sense
> because
> these are 2 different actions.  When an infinitive verb follows the
> causative verb ìmake them afraidî, the meaning, everywhere I can
> find, is to
> ìto make them afraid to do xxxxxxxî. So in this case, I think it
> should be
> partially translated, ìthese are come to make them extremely afraid to
> ëyadahí the horns of the nations.î (1 Sam 21:1; Exo 3:6;34:30; Num
> 12:8).
> Does this make sense?
>
>
>
> 2) The verb ìyadahî is the root of the name Judah, which appears
> twice in
> this verse. The verb is very common in the hiphil, where it means
> ìpraiseî,
> ìgive thanksî, or ìconfessî.  The verb appears only once in the
> Qal, where
> it is translated ìshoot atî in Jer 50:14. That seems like a very
> different
> meaning than the Hiphil. It appears 2 times in the Piel: once here
> in Zech
> 1:21, and the other place is Lam 3:53, where it is translated
> ìcastî as in
> ìcast a stone upon meî.
> I would like to translate ìyadahî here in Zech 1:21 as ìpraiseî, or
> ìexaltî,
> so that the phrase would say, ìThese are come to make them [the
> nations]
> afraid of exalting the horns of the nations that lifted up Öî. Is this
> permissible?
>
>
> Thank you.
>
>
>
>
>
> -Steve Miller
>
> Detroit
>
> www.voiceInWilderness.info
>
> Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but prove the spirits whether
> they are
> of God,
>
> because many false prophets have gone out into the world. (1 John 4:1)
>
>
>
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