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  • From: Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Zech 1:19,21
  • Date: Tue, 10 Apr 2007 20:24:56 -0400

There was no Israel????

Then define what you mean by "Israel", because as we all know, Israel as an entity, existed from the time that G-d named it, with no interruption.

Shoshanna


Dear Steve,

I'm not sure if I'll manage to answer your questions, but Karl has already
addressed them. As he wrote, in a sequence such as "Judah, Israel and
Jerusalem", there is no need to insert "and" between every item. My
additional question would be - to what "Israel" is the author referring?
Presumably, Zechariah lived in Persian-period Judah. There was no "Israel".
He could have been using "Israel" to mean Judah, but the "Judah" is
redundant.


As far as "yadu", the verb is not the same as the one that means ìpraiseî,
ìgive thanksî, or ìconfessî. Like in Jer. 50:14 and Lam. 3:53, it means "to
throw". It seems to be derived from "yad", "hand", literally "to hand"
(although not meaning, as in English, "to give").

Yigal Levin




----- Original Message -----
From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, April 10, 2007 1:51 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Zech 1:19,21


Zech 1:19 (2:2 MT) last phrase ñ ìscattered Judah, Israel and Jerusalem.î

ʉ¯Âà ý™‘È¿”ÂÓ»” ý™‘ÈŸ˜"¿¯»ý‰Ï ŸȯÂØ-»Ï»ÕÌ"

1) There is no ìandî prefix in front of Israel. Without the ìandî in
front of Israel, does this mean Israel is not another element in the list,
but is in apposition to ìJudahî?



2) Is there any significance that ìetî, which points to the direct
object, precedes Judah and Israel, but not Jerusalem?



Zech 1:21 (2:4 MT) end phrase ìthese are come to affright them, to cast
out
the horns of the nations that lifted up a horn over the land of Judah to
scatter it.î

«Èû·ŠýÂà ý‰ÏД Ï¿”«Á¬¯ŸÈ“ ýŠ™»Ì Ï¿È«“ʙ ý™‘—«¯¿•ŠÂ™ ”«’ÊÂȟÌ



1)Note that there is no ìandî before the infinitive form of the verb
ìyadahî. In the above translation: ìto cast out the horns of the nationsî
is
in apposition to ìto affright themî. But that doesnít make sense because
these are 2 different actions. When an infinitive verb follows the
causative verb ìmake them afraidî, the meaning, everywhere I can find, is
to
ìto make them afraid to do xxxxxxxî. So in this case, I think it should be
partially translated, ìthese are come to make them extremely afraid to
ëyadahí the horns of the nations.î (1 Sam 21:1; Exo 3:6;34:30; Num 12:8).
Does this make sense?



2) The verb ìyadahî is the root of the name Judah, which appears twice in
this verse. The verb is very common in the hiphil, where it means ìpraiseî,
ìgive thanksî, or ìconfessî. The verb appears only once in the Qal, where
it is translated ìshoot atî in Jer 50:14. That seems like a very different
meaning than the Hiphil. It appears 2 times in the Piel: once here in Zech
1:21, and the other place is Lam 3:53, where it is translated ìcastî as in
ìcast a stone upon meî.
I would like to translate ìyadahî here in Zech 1:21 as ìpraiseî, or
ìexaltî,
so that the phrase would say, ìThese are come to make them [the nations]
afraid of exalting the horns of the nations that lifted up Öî. Is this
permissible?


Thank you.





-Steve Miller

Detroit

www.voiceInWilderness.info

Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but prove the spirits whether they
are
of God,

because many false prophets have gone out into the world. (1 John 4:1)



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