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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: Steve Miller <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Zech 1:19,21
  • Date: Tue, 10 Apr 2007 01:53:13 -0400

Steve,

I think that MAH ELEH BAIM LAASOT of Zechariah 2:4 (in the HB) refers to the XARASHIM, the metal or wood cutters, who are destined to come (VAYABOU ELEH) to rock loose (LeHAXARID), then cast away (LeYADOT) the battering horns of the war machines brought to bear upon Israel.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Apr 9, 2007, at 6:51 PM, Steve Miller wrote:

Zech 1:19 (2:2 MT) last phrase – “scattered Judah, Israel and Jerusalem.”

זֵרוּ אֶת־יְהוּדָה אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵל וִירוּשָׁלָֽם׃

1) There is no “and” prefix in front of Israel. Without the “and” in
front of Israel, does this mean Israel is not another element in the list,
but is in apposition to “Judah”?



2) Is there any significance that “et”, which points to the direct
object, precedes Judah and Israel, but not Jerusalem?



Zech 1:21 (2:4 MT) end phrase “these are come to affright them, to cast out
the horns of the nations that lifted up a horn over the land of Judah to
scatter it.”

וַיָּבֹאוּ אֵלֶּה לְהַחֲרִיד אֹתָם לְיַדֹּות אֶת־קַרְנֹות הַגֹּויִם



1)Note that there is no “and” before the infinitive form of the verb
“yadah”. In the above translation: “to cast out the horns of the nations” is
in apposition to “to affright them”. But that doesn’t make sense because
these are 2 different actions. When an infinitive verb follows the
causative verb “make them afraid”, the meaning, everywhere I can find, is to
“to make them afraid to do xxxxxxx”. So in this case, I think it should be
partially translated, “these are come to make them extremely afraid to
‘yadah’ the horns of the nations.” (1 Sam 21:1; Exo 3:6;34:30; Num 12:8).
Does this make sense?



2) The verb “yadah” is the root of the name Judah, which appears twice in
this verse. The verb is very common in the hiphil, where it means “praise”,
“give thanks”, or “confess”. The verb appears only once in the Qal, where
it is translated “shoot at” in Jer 50:14. That seems like a very different
meaning than the Hiphil. It appears 2 times in the Piel: once here in Zech
1:21, and the other place is Lam 3:53, where it is translated “cast” as in
“cast a stone upon me”.
I would like to translate “yadah” here in Zech 1:21 as “praise”, or “exalt”,
so that the phrase would say, “These are come to make them [the nations]
afraid of exalting the horns of the nations that lifted up …”. Is this
permissible?


Thank you.





-Steve Miller

Detroit

www.voiceInWilderness.info

Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but prove the spirits whether they are
of God,

because many false prophets have gone out into the world. (1 John 4:1)



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