Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

> From: Yigal Levin
> Sent: Tuesday, April 10, 2007 1:06 AM
> 
> Dear Steve,
> 
> I'm not sure if I'll manage to answer your questions, but Karl has already
> addressed them. As he wrote, in a sequence such as "Judah, Israel and
> Jerusalem", there is no need to insert "and" between every item. My
> additional question would be - to what "Israel" is the author referring?
> Presumably, Zechariah lived in Persian-period Judah. There was no
> "Israel".
> He could have been using "Israel" to mean Judah, but the "Judah" is
> redundant.
[Steve Miller] Yigal. Thanks. This is exactly what I was thinking. "Israel",
as the northern kingdom separate from Judah, had ceased to exist. (the 10
tribes still exist, but not as the northern kingdom called "Israel"
anymore.) After the beginning of the Babylonian captivity, "Israel" is
Judah, which now includes the people of the 10 lost tribes who joined
themselves to Judah. So "Israel" and "Judah" are redundant, which is why I
thought "Israel" should be in apposition to "Judah", rather than as another
item in the list. Then when I saw no waw attached to "Israel", I wanted to
know if that was what was meant.
> 
> 
> As far as "yadu", the verb is not the same as the one that means "praise",
> "give thanks", or "confess". Like in Jer. 50:14 and Lam. 3:53, it means
> "to
> throw". It seems to be derived from "yad", "hand", literally "to hand"
> (although not meaning, as in English, "to give").
[Steve Miller] Yigal, can you explain why the verb leyadot here is a
different verb than yadah, to praise? Thanks very much.
-Steve Miller
Detroit
www.voiceInWilderness.info