Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Dear Steve:

On 4/9/07, Steve Miller <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> Zech 1:19 (2:2 MT)  last phrase – "scattered Judah, Israel and Jerusalem."
>
>  זֵרוּ אֶת־יְהוּדָה אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵל וִירוּשָׁלָֽם׃
>
> 1)     There is no "and" prefix in front of Israel. Without the "and" in
> front of Israel, does this mean Israel is not another element in the list,
> but is in apposition to "Judah"?
No significance. "And" is optional in lists.
> 2)     Is there any significance that "et", which points to the direct
> object, precedes Judah and Israel, but not Jerusalem?
Again no.
> Zech 1:21 (2:4 MT) end phrase "these are come to affright them, to cast out
> the horns of the nations that lifted up a horn over the land of Judah to
> scatter it."
>
>  וַיָּבֹאוּ אֵלֶּה לְהַחֲרִיד אֹתָם לְיַדֹּות אֶת־קַרְנֹות הַגֹּויִם
>
>
>
> 1)Note that there is no "and" before the infinitive form of the verb
> "yadah". In the above translation: "to cast out the horns of the nations" is
> in apposition to "to affright them". But that doesn't make sense because
> these are 2 different actions.  When an infinitive verb follows the
> causative verb "make them afraid", the meaning, everywhere I can find, is to
> "to make them afraid to do xxxxxxx". So in this case, I think it should be
> partially translated, "these are come to make them extremely afraid to
> 'yadah' the horns of the nations." (1 Sam 21:1; Exo 3:6;34:30; Num 12:8).
> Does this make sense?
>
> 2) The verb "yadah" is the root of the name Judah, which appears twice in
> this verse. The verb is very common in the hiphil, where it means "praise",
> "give thanks", or "confess".  The verb appears only once in the Qal, where
> it is translated "shoot at" in Jer 50:14. That seems like a very different
> meaning than the Hiphil. It appears 2 times in the Piel: once here in Zech
> 1:21, and the other place is Lam 3:53, where it is translated "cast" as in
> "cast a stone upon me".
> I would like to translate "yadah" here in Zech 1:21 as "praise", or "exalt",
> so that the phrase would say, "These are come to make them [the nations]
> afraid of exalting the horns of the nations that lifted up …". Is this
> permissible?
Looking at the meaning of the verb, it refers to the actions of going
out towards something. It is used of a missile in attack, of throwing
down lots (in ancient times often stones were the lots), with the hand
going out in pointing out. Pointing out is also done verbally with the
action being understood in the mind's eye, and in the context of
pointing out what great things God has done is a type of praise.

You took the above phrase out of context, the full verse reads

ואמר מה אלה באים לעשות ויאמר לאמר אלה הקרהות אשר זרו את יהודה כפי איש
לא נשא ראשו ויבאו אלה להחריד אתם לידות את קרנות הגוים הנשאים קרן אל
ארץ יהודה לזרותה

And he said, What are these coming to do? And he said saying, These
the horns which scatter Judah according to my mouth, and man does not
lift up his head, and these come to cause them to shiver (from
fright), to make the horns of the nations go forth, of the nations
lifting up a horn unto the land of Judah to scatter it.
> Thank you.
>
>
> -Steve Miller
>
> Detroit
>
> www.voiceInWilderness.info
>
> Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but prove the spirits whether they are
> of God,
>
> because many false prophets have gone out into the world. (1 John 4:1)

Karl W. Randolph.