Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Dear Steve,

I'm not sure if I'll manage to answer your questions, but Karl has already 
addressed them. As he wrote, in a sequence such as "Judah, Israel and 
Jerusalem", there is no need to insert "and" between every item. My 
additional question would be - to what "Israel" is the author referring? 
Presumably, Zechariah lived in Persian-period Judah. There was no "Israel". 
He could have been using "Israel" to mean Judah, but the "Judah" is 
redundant.


As far as "yadu", the verb is not the same as the one that means “praise”, 
“give thanks”, or “confess”. Like in Jer. 50:14 and Lam. 3:53, it means "to 
throw". It seems to be derived from "yad", "hand", literally "to hand" 
(although not meaning, as in English, "to give").

Yigal Levin




----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, April 10, 2007 1:51 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Zech 1:19,21


> Zech 1:19 (2:2 MT)  last phrase – “scattered Judah, Israel and Jerusalem.”
>
> זֵרוּ אֶת־יְהוּדָה אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵל וִירוּשָׁלָֽם׃
>
> 1)     There is no “and” prefix in front of Israel. Without the “and” in
> front of Israel, does this mean Israel is not another element in the list,
> but is in apposition to “Judah”?
>
>
>
> 2)     Is there any significance that “et”, which points to the direct
> object, precedes Judah and Israel, but not Jerusalem?
>
>
>
> Zech 1:21 (2:4 MT) end phrase “these are come to affright them, to cast 
> out
> the horns of the nations that lifted up a horn over the land of Judah to
> scatter it.”
>
> וַיָּבֹאוּ אֵלֶּה לְהַחֲרִיד אֹתָם לְיַדֹּות אֶת־קַרְנֹות הַגֹּויִם
>
>
>
> 1)Note that there is no “and” before the infinitive form of the verb
> “yadah”. In the above translation: “to cast out the horns of the nations” 
> is
> in apposition to “to affright them”. But that doesn’t make sense because
> these are 2 different actions.  When an infinitive verb follows the
> causative verb “make them afraid”, the meaning, everywhere I can find, is 
> to
> “to make them afraid to do xxxxxxx”. So in this case, I think it should be
> partially translated, “these are come to make them extremely afraid to
> ‘yadah’ the horns of the nations.” (1 Sam 21:1; Exo 3:6;34:30; Num 12:8).
> Does this make sense?
>
>
>
> 2) The verb “yadah” is the root of the name Judah, which appears twice in
> this verse. The verb is very common in the hiphil, where it means “praise”,
> “give thanks”, or “confess”.  The verb appears only once in the Qal, where
> it is translated “shoot at” in Jer 50:14. That seems like a very different
> meaning than the Hiphil. It appears 2 times in the Piel: once here in Zech
> 1:21, and the other place is Lam 3:53, where it is translated “cast” as in
> “cast a stone upon me”.
> I would like to translate “yadah” here in Zech 1:21 as “praise”, or 
>  “exalt”,
> so that the phrase would say, “These are come to make them [the nations]
> afraid of exalting the horns of the nations that lifted up …”. Is this
> permissible?
>
>
> Thank you.
>
>
>
>
>
> -Steve Miller
>
> Detroit
>
> www.voiceInWilderness.info
>
> Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but prove the spirits whether they 
> are
> of God,
>
> because many false prophets have gone out into the world. (1 John 4:1)
>
>
>
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>
>
>
>
> --
> Internal Virus Database is out-of-date.
> Checked by AVG Free Edition.
> Version: 7.5.446 / Virus Database: 268.18.24/742 - Release Date: 
> 01/04/2007 20:49