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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Divine Embodiment - Peter Kirk

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  • From: "Kevin Graham" <kevlds AT hotmail.com>
  • To: peterkirk AT qaya.org
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Divine Embodiment - Peter Kirk
  • Date: Tue, 13 Sep 2005 12:27:30 +0000



Hi Peter,

== True, but in the case of a spherical object the back part is the part which you can see as it is moving away.

From a metaphysical standpoint, you're still begging the question; what
makes it discernable as the "back part"? You keep reasserting the same thing without justifying the logic. There is simply no logic in assuming that something is showing its "backpart" simply because it is moving away.

== It is clear that the point in Exodus 33:22-23 is that Moses will see something only after God has passed, and (assuming normal motion rather than reversing) the part he sees is almost by definition the back part.

I'm not arguing whether God actually turned his back to him. Of course he did. This is what the text says. I'm arguing that reference to a "backside" would make no sense if God were some spiritual entity of light. Again, the sun blinds us no matter what angle we look at it. What was so different and so "dangerous" about God's face that disallowed mankind from seeing it? None of this makes sense, unless of course, God was in anthropomorphic form. The text says Moses took God's face down the mountain with him, and we know Moses' face was radiant because of this encounter.

== I am serious. The point is that God kills people who disobey his commandments etc. If it anywhere actually says that God's face kills someone, that is clearly figurative language.

Oh, so now the Bible is simply wrong and the four thousand year tradition is just myth. Seriously, I think you're too hung up on the metaphor/figurative excuse. In your paradigm, is there "anything" in the Bible that we can take literally?

== which is my argument which you referred to as "hypothesis".

Right. But I'm not arguing that face or back is never used figuratively. I'm saying that it isn't always figurative, and you have not demonstrated this to be the case in this instance. According to the theological confines you've placed around the text, if God truly were an anthropomorphic being, there is simply no way you would allow the Bible to express it. For every attempt it made would be rendered a metaphor according to your paradigm. Drink that in for a moment.

== Where I am going is that LIPNEY does not mean "to the face of", because the word PANIM has a metaphorical sense which is extremely widespread in Hebrew.

Again I say, this does not demonstrate metaphor in this instance unless "face" is always a metaphor. Should we assume that all references to "faces" in the Bible are simply metahporical? Maybe humans, according to Moses, didn't really have literal faces either. Where do we draw the line? Why the line between God and man? You have not established a rule that can be categorized as anything but theologically driven.

== The "Ancient Jewish tradition" you refer to seems to be based on a Hellenistic literalist reading of the Hebrew.

It isn't. Moses was hardly a hellenist. Judaism encountered Greek philosphy rather late. These traditions I refer to are quite early.

== But you have failed to demonstrate that they were deleted, rather than translated with Greek idioms with the same meaning which were not derived from body parts.

I have demonstrated this via the arguments by the experts in this field. I only provided a few examples from which a plethora exist. I've backed my view up with scholarly consensus - the bane of your presentation, apparently.

For Pete's sake, even Evangelical and Jewish authorities admit the anthropomorphisms were intentionally toned down in the LXX. If they can suck it up, take the hit and concede the point, this should speak volumes about the strength of the argument. For you to keep dodging the point smacks of apologetic manuevering. I suppose you're not familiar with Metzger? These alterations cannot be mere coincidence he says. Is Metzger some chump who is too stupid to have considered what you insist is so "clear" and "obvious"?

== By the kinds of arguments you have been using, if a house does not have a face, nor does God.

No, you're making illicit leaps as to what I'm actually arguing. My argument doesn't place confines around what a text might be saying, while yours does. I can accept metaphor if you can demonstrate metaphor. Thus far you've failed to provide a metaphorical meaning for the various examples given.

== Your argument is that a particular biblical case cannot be metaphorical because this expression cannot have a metaphorical sense.

That is not my argument. I simply follow the basic rules of hermeneutics. This is, after all, what we're dealing with. You're not going to be able to retranslate everything you don't like by using variant, yet plausible Hebrew, and call that "proper interpretation." This still doesn't justify your dependence on the metaphor. Gerhard Hasel notes that, “The basic principle of biblical interpretation is to take words always in their literal sense unless there is an unmistakable contextual indication to the contrary.” Gerhard F. Hasel, “Principles of Biblical Interpretation,” Gordon M. Hyde, editor, A Symposium on Biblical Hermeneutics (Washington D.C.: Biblical Research Institute, 1974), p.176. “The literal-figurative principle also warns against the methodology of the Bultmann school. This method of interpretation robs the Bible of its original meaning and substitutes philosophical abstractions. The minister who follows this course is replacing God's revelation with human theories.” Ibid. Norval F. Pease, p. 259. Clines asks, “If anthropomorphisms referring to the 'bodily parts' of God can be understood as metaphors for his activity, for what is the speech or love of God a metaphor?” If you want to establish rules that make sense, you must follow through with them and apply the same logic throughout; not just stop at a point where a theological purpose is served.

A verse is to be taken literally if it makes perfect sense, and these verses would have made perfect sense to an ANE audience that understood deities to be anthropomorphic. That was the norm in the ANE. Ugarit deities were not described anthropomorphically in a "figurative" sense. They were described as being locked in hand-to-hand combat, eating, sleeping, procreating as humans would, etc. Likewise, Ex 24:11 indicates that Yahweh ate and drank with the 70 elders. Reading an ANE text through modern lenses forces the assumption that metaphor must be at work, because unlike the God of Ancient Israel, the modern-day Judeo-Christian God does not eat, drink, have "form" or "parts and passions" etc. You're approaching it backwards, assuming metaphor and figurative language in anything that disagrees with your understanding of God. You take this for granted and then you tell me to prove you're wrong. I don't need to because your own method, incredulous in the realm of scholarship, does it for me. It is simply a lazy way to explain the text, and comes across as something only a minister and his choir could appreciate.

== I am proving that it cannot have a metaphorical sense.

I think you meant to say that it "can."

== As for "heart to heart" talk, of course this English expression has nothing to do with literal hearts. I can imagine a science fiction writer writing of someone having a "heart to heart" with a robot, but without meaning that the robot had a literal heart. Similarly if a preacher said he had a "heart to heart" with God, I wouldn't assume that he was claiming that God had a literal heart. This is clearly a metaphorical extension of the meaning of the word "heart". I think you need to go away and read up about metaphors before pronouncing on them.

You're missing the point, again. Of course the phrase "heart to heart" doesn't refer directly to a heart. That isn't my argument. I'm saying the phrase is meant to be used, only in reference to things which have literal hearts. So to say it has "nothing to do" with literal hearts is overstating your case. For example, you would never say you're going to have a "heart to heart" with a chair or a tree. Though you might say you're going to have a "heart to heart" with your Mom or sister. Likewise, you would never say you're going to see "eye to eye" with a tree or chair. I've asked you to provide just one instance in Hebrew where the "eye to eye" phrase involves things which don't have eyes. If you could do this it would strengthen your case tremendously. Until you do, it is just a begged question. And again, it seems that if God truly has eyes, there is no language available that would be able to express this to the point where you'd accept it. You'd simply relegate every anthropomorphic term to the metaphor bin.

Further, just becuse someone misapplies a metaphor (i.e. heart to heart with a robot) doesn't make it the exception that proves the rule.

== It is bad linguistics to refer to rare expressions like "face to face" and "eye to eye" and insist that every use of them is in the same sense as the very few clearly understood cases.

I'm not "insisting" anything. The fact is you haven't adequately reconciled these verses. And no, you haven't demonstrated a difference between metaphorical verses and the so-called "clearly understood cases." The underlying rule here seems to be whatever is applied to God is metaphor, anything else to humans is literal. Why? Because God is spirit and humans as we know are literal anthropomorphic beings. These assertions cannot escape the theological presuppositions that mold them.

== Words and phrases have various senses, and the Hebrew Bible is not a large and varied enough corpus to find all of these senses. You are falling here into the same fallacy as Karl, that words and phrases have only one meaning.

No this is not true. You should probably take your own advice and try harder to avoid straw man arguments. I never once said these words have only one meaning.

== Dominion is explicitly described in the same verse, although not explicitly as the meaning and purpose. The link of meaning and purpose is a very obvious implication

Yes. Because mankind is created in God's image he is capable of having dominion. Pretty "obvious" to most scholars.

== even if the so-called scholars have refused to take it because it does not fit with their theological reconstruction.

Yea, like Claus Westermann the Lutheran, Mark Smith the Catholic, Margaret Barker the Methodist, Kenneth Mathews the Baptist, Moshe Weinfeld the Jew, Meredith Kline the Evangelical, etc. You caught them with their pants down Peter. It is truly in their theological interest to argue that God is an anthropomorphic being, right? Get real. The fact that this conclusion directly conflicts with their theology, yet they are willing to concede the point about Gen 1:26, speaks volumes about the weakness of your argument. Their conclusion is not made because of their theology, but in spite of it! Your argument is an old one. It holds a special place for conservative scholars (i.e. theologians) because that is pretty much the last line of hope they have. Yet is has been refuted by scholars in various venues. I already noted Westermann and von Rad, but you might also try flipping through Miller's, “In the Image and Likeness of God,” Journal of Biblical Literature, 1972, p. 296 in particular.

== No.

Yes.

== God pronounces that they will have dominion (1:26) before he actually creates them (1:27).

Right, before he creates them, but that is beside the point. The fact is He says they will be made in His image before anything is said about the consequence of the image. Thus, dominion came as a result or consequence of the image. Even the Evangelicals, Kenneth Mathews and Gordon Wenham concede this "clear" and "obvious" point!

== There is no separation here between the two actions.

Separation is not the issue. It is a matter of what came first.

"God said, Let Us make mankind in Our image, after Our likeness, AND let them have complete authority over the fish of the sea, the birds of the air, the beasts, and over all of the earth, and over everything that creeps upon the earth. So God created man in His own image, in the image and likeness of God He created him; male and female He created them "

The blessing of dominion was clearly a secondary, consequential comment to the most important point of all: man's creation in God's image.

== The dominion explanation is supported by the plain meaning of the Hebrew text. I cannot believe that anyone reading 1:26-28 without theological presuppositions would not see that dominion was at least one of the purposes of humanity being created in the image of God.

*Straw man alert.*

Nobody is saying it wasn't "part" of the image (i.e. consequence of it). What I'm saying is that the meaning of image cannot be divorced from the "clear" and "obvious" Hebrew understanding of tselem. Humbert said the physical meaning was all it meant. Gunkel, von Rad Westermann, Barker and company admit that it was at least PART of it. Karl prefers the "shadow" rendering, which is absurd, and clearly a theological preference. I can't think of one single Hebrew authority who prefers this rendering.

== Psalm 8 also refers to humanity's dominion and implies that this was the purpose of their creation, also Psalm 115:16.

Exactly! Which only reinfoces my point since the "image of God" is nowhere mentioned in the Psalm, where one would expect to find it if the meaning was as simple as dominion = image. But since the dominion was a consequence of the image, and the image was not a consequence of the dominion, the Psalm need make no mention of it.

Further, angels, humans and God are the only three beings described as having the divine image. So we must figure out what all three had in common. What is the common denominator here?Did Angels have dominion? No, they were servants in their realm. So in what way were they in the image? The only explanation is the anthropomorphic, literal understanding. Adam, God and the heavenly host were all three described in anthropomorphic form.

Even Clines has to figure out another way around this problem; precisely because the "dominion is what it MEANS" argument is so weak, he has to retranslate the text. So Clines proposes this: Gen 1:26 says not that man was created IN the image OF God. Rather, it says man was created AS and image FOR God. If man is created merely AS an image FOR God, then God wouldn't need to have a preexistent image from which man was formed. Thus, the theological pothole is filled. This argument is plausible but highly unlikely, as even Gordon Wenham admits. Wenham and Miller both do a wonderful job refuting this, and even Clines realizes its weakness.

== "were understood" by who?

By the ANE culture of which Moses was a part. Divine throne-chairs were well-known in that period. The parallels between the ark's construction and known throne-chairs in the Ancient Near East are overt. A chest like an ark would often serve as a footstool for the king, and the seat (which had two Sphinxs -with wings! - one on each armrest) was places above it.

Illustration available here: http://home.earthlink.net/~tonybadillo/ark/pt1lionchairs.jpg

The construction of the arm rests were part of the throne. Likewise, the kapporet (seat?) is a separate piece from the ark itself - its dimensions are given separately in Exodus 25:17­. A good illustration of what this may have looked like can be found here:

http://home.earthlink.net/~tonybadillo/ark/pt1arkthrone.jpg

== Note that the rendering "mercy seat" is highly interpretational. The Hebrew word KAPPORET does not mean "seat", but more probably "lid" which is what it was, and its relevance to "mercy" is uncertain.

Fair enough, but it seems to me that the "lid" was actually just a "cover." Or to be clearer, something that simply sat on top of it (seat/throne?). The Bible seems to indicate that the "seat" was something placed on top of the ark. Not as a "lid" necessarily, but as a separate object that served a specific purpose. Given its descriptive parallels with Egyptian throne-chairs, it seems most likely the case that the ark served as a footstool for God's throne. Given this background information, we shouldn't be surprised to find verses implying that this was precisely the purpose of the ark.(I Chronicles 28:2; Ps 132:7) Further, the wings spread out could have served as a backrest.
A good illustration of what this might have looked like can be found here:

http://home.earthlink.net/~tonybadillo/ark/pt1chairs.jpg

== Where does "between" come from? Or "enthroned" for that matter? The Hebrew is YO$EB HAKKERUBIM, which probably means "sitting ON the cherubim", or maybe "dwelling with the cherubim".

Fair enough. But the tradition of a throne in the temple can hardly be denied, no matter what "size" it may have been. Jeremiah sees,"A glorious high throne(kicce) from the beginning is the place of our sanctuary."(17:12) Isaiah mentions it (6:1;16:5), Ezekiel sees it,(Ez 1:26;10:1;43:7) and other references include 1 Sam 2:8, 2 Ch 18:18, Ps 9:7;11:4;45:6;47:8, Lam 5:19, Zech 16:13. The concept of Yahweh sitting on a throne is mentioned in perhaps too many verses to name. The Deuterocanon and Pseudepigrapha mention it moreso than the Tanakh.

I suspect that the various translations adopt the "seat" rendering because of an appeal to this tradition. Also, the "mercy" factor seems to have been influenced by Isa 16:5("And in mercy shall the throne be established"), as well as the NT references to God's throne (Hebrews/Revelation). In any event, it is silly to refer to God "sitting" on a throne unless he is an anthropomorphic being.

== So it seems you agree that your LXX references fail to prove your point.

No, I've read profusely on these matters, and I find the scholarly consensus quite compelling. Your unfamiliarity with the relevant scholarship is something you and Karl both must remedy on your own. I am not prepared to do it for you, nor am I certain that this is the proper forum to make the attempt.

== Well, I notice that you keep quoting him (Mark Smith). I have never heard of him.

Which means what, exactly? Sorry, but this says more about your credibility than it does his. Frankly I'm shocked that you and Karl both seem oblivious to some of the stuff I present, as well as the authorities I've mentioned. Limited familiarity with the likes of Humbert or Smith may be forgivable, but to say you've "never heard of them"!?!?

Maybe I overestimated this forum.

== And I don't accept him as an authority.

That's OK. Most people who are serious about learning of the ANE and its influence on Ancient Israel, consider him highly qualified. On the Ugaritic material he is a leading authority. But I'm not here to convince you you're wrong. I lay out what scholarship has demonstrated and you and Karl can familiarize yourself with it on your own if you like. Or don't. I can (and do) have theological squabbles on the appropriate message forums, but I signed up here for other reasons.

I failed the initial task of getting to know my audience first. I was expecting more OT scholars than "Reverends," or else I never would have jumped on the ThD subject so quickly. Anyway, live and learn...






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