Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

George:

Since when does "Prophecy does not name specific names"? That's the very 
nature of Biblical prophecy. After all, Isaiah named Cyrus long before he was 
born (Isaiah 44:28 ff.) Daniel in his visions saw events so clearly that 
modern historians can give names to the players involved, and even there 
Daniel named some names which make the identifications easier. Then Daniel's 
seventy sevens prophecy, recognizing that each seven equals seven years, 
starting at the time of Nehemiah at about 415 BC give or take a year or two, 
ends almost exactly with the Jewish revolt, the seventieth seven about midway 
through seeing the sacrifice stopped by one called "the leader who is to 
come" (both the original Roman general, and his son, later were "leaders", 
i.e. emperor). So was Daniel written after 73 AD? In Isaiah 48 the claim was 
made that Biblical prophecy is specific so that there is no question as to 
that God imparted it. Why wouldn't that specificity include names?

While this seems off field as far as B-Hebrew linguistic studies, it impinges 
upon the history of the language, hence recognition of the development 
thereof. Because I accept the possibility that there is a God who 
communicates with people, and in his prophecies gave specific information 
including names, recognize a different development history of Hebrew language 
than the person who is a naturalist claiming that all "prophecy" was written 
after the fact. This is where religion (philosophy) affects historical 
studies, and recognize that because we do not share the same belief system, 
neither will we share the same view of language history.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "George F Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com>
> 
> Oh, but I didn't say that one was and the other was not predictive
> prophecy.  I will accept both as predictive prophecy.  I said that the
> mention of Josiah was an insertion into the prophecy.  Prophecy does not
> name specific names -- that is its nature.  A prophet might say that the
> king of Judah would slaughter (BTW:  I hope that you don't take the use
> of the word ZBX as indicating human sacrifice) the priests of Jeroboam's
> cultic site.  That the name of Josiah is included can only be ascribed to
> a later insertion.  One might accept Immanuel in Is 7.14 as being
> something the prophet himself had control over if "the young woman" were
> his wife or that he had spoken with this "young woman" who had told him
> that should it be a male she would thus name him or perhaps other
> speculative reasons regarding the inclusion of a name here (as to its
> being a male, he had a better than 50% chance of being right), but this
> is all speculative and I choose to not speculate.
> 
> george
> gfsomsel
-- 
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