Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Karl,

I personally have no well-defined opinion about whether LMW must be plural,
and I'm perfectly willing to accept the idea that even in this case (Gen.
9:26) it is singular. However, Noah's words are quite obviously prophetic -
he speaks about the future. Moreover, the "characters" of Noah's sons and
descendants are quite obviously representative figures, who reflect what the
biblical authors thought about their "progeny".

Yigal

----- Original Message -----
From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, December 14, 2004 3:03 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53:8


> Vadim:
>
> Where is the indication that this is a prophesy concerning their posterity
and not to them personally? Where does it say that Canaan did not personally
become a slave to Shem?
>
> You can't use Genesis 49 as an example, as that specifically indicates
that Jacob's statement is a prophesy. But there is no such indication in
Genesis 9. Therefore I conclude that your claim is an eisegesis done to
maintain the fiction that LMW must refer a plural.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> Karl Randolph wrote:
>
> > You wrote, "Take Gen 9:26, which Harold brings forward as the most
> > relevant to singular. Canaan will the slave of Shem. Of course,
> > Noah does not speak of one person becoming a slave to another, but
> > rather of their posterity. The collective plural of the people of
> > Shem is lmo."
>
> Verses 26 and 27 here say nothing about the posterity, just the
> individuals are named. Saying that it refers to the posterity is not
> exegesis, but eisegesis, where you are adding to the text. <
>
> Canaan did not physically became a slave to Shem. Noah prophecied
> about the posterity.
>
> Vadim Cherny
> --
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