Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Vadim Cherny" <vadim_lv AT center-tv.net>]

Peter Kirk wrote:

> But if "The reduced vowel may elongate back to kamatz in pausal", lamo 
is simply the non-pausal variant of lmo, or vice versa. <

You assume that schwa in lmo is a reduction, and therefore might elongate. I 
don't recall elongation of schwa into kamatz in l:noun form. Why should l:mo 
elongate, then? The schwa under preposition is not an immediate reduction.

I think there is semantic gap between cmo, bmo, lmo, and lamo. While the 
former preceed an object, lamo itself could be employed as an object. 
Compare, say, cmo boker with nega lamo in Isaiah 53:8. This is why I agree 
with Steinberg that lamo (unlike lmo) includes a pronoun (l:hem:o).


Karl Randolph wrote:

> That -MW is a suffix can be seen in its use attached to nouns (e.g. 
> Deuteronomy 32:37, 33:29, Psalm 2:3), to verbs (e.g. Psalm 2:5, 140:9) and 
> to prepositions (e.g. Deuteronomy 32:23). <

But everywhere -mo refers to the collective plural.


Vadim Cherny